UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2021, General Studies Paper II (CSAT)

Series A. Questions and answers from the official UPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक UPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real UPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

Researchers simulated street lighting on artificial grassland plots containing pea-aphids, sap-sucking insects, at night. These were exposed to two different types of light - a white light similar to newer commercial LED lights and an amber light similar to sodium street lamps. The low intensity amber light was shown to inhibit, rather than induce, flowering in a wild plant of the pea family which is a source of food for the pea-aphids in grasslands. The number of aphids was also significantly suppressed under the light treatment due to the limited amount of food available.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given above?
1. Low intensity light has more adverse effect on the plants as compared to high intensity light.
2. Light pollution can have a permanent adverse impact on an ecosystem.
3. White light is better for the flowering of plants as compared to the light of other colours.
4. Proper intensity of light in an ecosystem is important not only for plants but for animals too.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Light pollution can have a permanent adverse impact on an ecosystem.
The experiment shows a chain effect: artificial night light stopped the wild pea plant from flowering, and because the plant is the aphids' food, the aphid numbers also fell. So artificial lighting (light pollution) disturbs a whole ecosystem, not just one species, and since it suppresses the plant's flowering (its reproduction) and the insects' food supply, the damage can carry on over time. This is what (b) says. Option (a) and (c) compare light types or intensities, but the passage gives a result only for the low intensity amber light and makes no comparison. Option (d) talks of a 'proper intensity' of light, which the passage never identifies.
Approximately 80 percent of all flowering plant species are pollinated by animals, including birds and mammals, but the main pollinators are insects. Pollination is responsible for providing us with a wide variety of food, as well as many plant-derived medicines. At least one-third of the world's agricultural crops depend upon pollination. Bees are the most dominant taxa when it comes to pollination and they are crucial to more than four hundred crops. Pollination is an essential service that is the result of intricate relationships between plants and animals, and the reduction or loss of either affects the survival of both. Effective pollination requires resources, such as refuges of pristine natural vegetation.
On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Sustainable production of India's cereal food grains is impossible without the diversity of pollinating animals. 2. Monoculture of horticultural crops hampers the survival of insects. 3. Pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas devoid of natural vegetation. 4. Diversity in insects induces diversity of plants. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
1. 1 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 3 and 4 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 3 and 4 only
The passage says effective pollination needs refuges of natural vegetation, so areas without such vegetation will have fewer pollinators (3 is valid). It also says the loss of either plants or animals affects the survival of both, and that most flowering plants depend on animal (mostly insect) pollinators, so a variety of insects supports a variety of plants (4 is valid). Assumption 1 fails because the passage never says cereals depend on animal pollination; it only says one-third of crops do. Assumption 2 about monoculture of horticultural crops is not discussed. Hence 3 and 4 only.
A study conducted on the impacts of climate change over the Cauvery basin of Tamil Nadu using regional climate models showed an increasing trend for maximum and minimum temperatures, and a decrease in the number of rainy days. These climatic shifts will have an impact on the hydrological cycles in the region, lead to more run-off and less recharge, and affect the groundwater tables. Further, there has been an increase in the frequency of droughts in the State. This has driven farmers to increase dependency on groundwater resources to secure their crops.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?
1. Development of regional climate models helps in choosing climate-smart agricultural practices.
2. Heavy dependence on groundwater resources can be reduced by adopting dry-land cropping systems.
3. Climate changes increase the criticality of water resources while simultaneously threatening it.
4. Climate changes cause the farmers to adopt unsustainable livelihoods and risky coping strategies.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Climate changes increase the criticality of water resources while simultaneously threatening it.
The passage makes two linked points: climate change reduces groundwater recharge (a threat to the resource), and the resulting droughts make farmers depend even more on groundwater (the resource becomes more critical). Option (c) captures both sides. Option (a) treats the climate models as the main point, though they are only the tool of the study. Option (b) offers a solution the passage does not discuss, and (d) goes too far with 'unsustainable livelihoods' and 'risky coping strategies', which are not mentioned.
Researchers were able to use stem cells to gauge the neurotoxic effects of the environmental pollutant Bisphenol A (BPA). They used a combination of biochemical and cell-based assays to examine the gene expression profile during the differentiation of mouse embryonic stem cells upon treatment with BPA, a compound known to cause heart diseases, diabetes, and developmental abnormalities in humans. They were able to detect and measure BPA toxicity towards the proper specification of primary germ layers, such as endoderm and ectoderm, and the establishment of neural progenitor cells.
On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. BPA may alter embryonic development in vivo. 2. Biochemical and cell-based assays are useful in finding out treatments for pollution-induced diseases. 3. Embryonic stem cells could serve as a model to evaluate the physiological effects of environmental pollutants. Which of the above assumptions are valid?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3 only
BPA affected the formation of germ layers and neural progenitor cells in embryonic stem cells, and it is known to cause developmental abnormalities in humans, so it may alter embryonic development in a living body (1 is valid). The whole study rests on the idea that embryonic stem cells can be used to measure the effects of a pollutant (3 is valid). Assumption 2 fails: the assays were used to detect and measure toxicity, not to find treatments for diseases. Hence 1 and 3 only.
If 3^2019 is divided by 10, then what is the remainder?
1. 1
2. 3
3. 7
4. 9
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 7
The last digit of powers of 3 repeats in a cycle of 4: 3, 9, 7, 1. Since 2019 = 4 x 504 + 3, the last digit of 3^2019 is the third in the cycle, 7. The remainder on division by 10 is the last digit, so it is 7.
The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7. What is the value of the digit P?
1. 1
2. 6
3. 7
4. 9
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 6
Use the rule for 7 (since 1001 = 7 x 11 x 13): split the number into groups of three from the right, 37 | 981 | 25P | 369, and take the alternating sum 369 - 25P + 981 - 37 = 1313 - (250 + P) = 1063 - P. Now 1063 = 7 x 151 + 6, so 1063 - P is divisible by 7 only when P = 6.
From January 1, 2021, the price of petrol (in Rupees per litre) on mth day of the year is 80 + 0.1m, where m = 1, 2, 3, ..., 100 and thereafter remains constant. On the other hand, the price of diesel (in Rupees per litre) on nth day of 2021 is 69 + 0.15n for any n. On which date in the year 2021 are the prices of these two fuels equal?
1. 21st May
2. 20th May
3. 19th May
4. 18th May
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 20th May
While petrol is still rising, 80 + 0.1n = 69 + 0.15n gives 0.05n = 11, n = 220, which is beyond day 100, so the prices do not meet in the first 100 days. After day 100 petrol stays at 80 + 0.1 x 100 = Rs 90. Diesel reaches 90 when 69 + 0.15n = 90, i.e. n = 21/0.15 = 140. Day 140 of 2021: January 31 + February 28 + March 31 + April 30 = 120 days, so day 140 is 20th May.
A biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animals will double in size every 12 years. The population at the beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to be 50 animals. If P represents the population after n years, then which one of the following equations represents the model of the class for the population?
1. P = 12 + 50n
2. P = 50 + 12n
3. P = 50 (2)^12n
4. P = 50 (2)^(n/12)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) P = 50 (2)^(n/12)
Doubling every 12 years means that after n years the population has doubled n/12 times. Starting from 50, P = 50 x 2^(n/12). Check: n = 12 gives 100 and n = 24 gives 200. The linear options (a) and (b) do not double, and 50 x 2^(12n) would double every 1/12 of a year.
In a class, 60% of students are from India and 50% of the students are girls. If 30% of the Indian students are girls, then what percentage of foreign students are boys?
1. 45%
2. 40%
3. 30%
4. 20%
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 20%
Take 100 students. Indian = 60, foreign = 40, girls = 50. Indian girls = 30% of 60 = 18, so foreign girls = 50 - 18 = 32. Foreign boys = 40 - 32 = 8. As a percentage of foreign students: 8/40 x 100 = 20%.
A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below. You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts. Statement: Some radios are mobiles. All mobiles are computers. Some computers are watches. Conclusion-I: Certainly some radios are watches. Conclusion-II: Certainly some mobiles are watches.
1. Only Conclusion-I
2. Only Conclusion-II
3. Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
4. Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II
We only know that some computers are watches. Those computers may be ones that are not mobiles and not radios, so no definite link exists between watches and either radios or mobiles. 'Some radios are mobiles' and 'All mobiles are computers' only give 'some radios are computers'. Hence neither conclusion follows with certainty.
Fig trees (genus Ficus) are considered sacred in India, East Asia and Africa and are common in agricultural and urban landscapes where other large trees are absent. In natural forests, fig trees provide food for wildlife when other resources are scarce and support a high density and diversity of frugivores (fruit-eating animals). If frugivorous birds and bats continue to visit fig trees located in sites with high human disturbance, sacred fig trees may promote frugivore abundance. Under favourable microclimate, plenty of seedlings of other tree species would grow around fig trees.
On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Fig trees can often be keystone species in natural forests. 2. Fig trees can grow where other large woody species cannot grow. 3. Sacred trees can have a role in biodiversity conservation. 4. Fig trees have a role in the seed dispersal of other tree species. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Fig trees feed wildlife when other food is scarce and support many kinds of frugivores, which is the role of a keystone species (1 is valid). Because they are sacred they are left standing in disturbed areas and keep supporting birds and bats, so sacred trees help conserve biodiversity (3 is valid). Frugivores visiting fig trees bring seeds of other trees, which is why seedlings of other species grow around them (4 is valid). Assumption 2 does not follow: the passage says fig trees are common where other large trees are absent, not that other trees cannot grow there. Hence 1, 3 and 4 only.
At the heart of agroecology is the idea that agroecosystems should mimic the biodiversity levels and functioning of natural ecosystems. Such agricultural mimics, like their natural models, can be productive, pest-resistant, nutrient conserving, and resilient to shocks and stresses. In ecosystems there is no 'waste', nutrients are recycled indefinitely. Agroecology aims at closing nutrient loops, i.e., returning all nutrients that come out of the soil back to the soil such as through application of farmyard manure. It also harnesses natural processes to control pests and build soil fertility i.e., through intercropping. Agroecological practices include integrating trees with livestock and crops.
Consider the following: 1. Cover crops 2. Fertigation 3. Hydroponics 4. Mixed farming 5. Polyculture 6. Vertical farming Which of the above farming practices can be compatible with agroecology, as implied by the passage?
1. 1, 4 and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
4. 4 and 6 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1, 4 and 5 only
Agroecology, as described, copies natural ecosystems: diversity of species, nutrients returned to the soil, natural pest control and soil building, and integration of trees, livestock and crops. Cover crops protect and enrich the soil, mixed farming combines crops with livestock, and polyculture grows many species together, so 1, 4 and 5 fit. Fertigation (fertiliser through irrigation water), hydroponics (soil-less growing) and vertical farming are input-driven or soil-free systems that do not mimic natural ecosystems or close soil nutrient loops.
Computers increasingly deal not just with abstract data like credit card details and databases, but also with the real world of physical objects and vulnerable human bodies. A modern car is a computer on wheels; an aeroplane is a computer on wings. The arrival of the "Internet of Things" will see computers baked into everything from road signs and MRI scanners to prosthetics and insulin pumps. There is little evidence that these gadgets will be any more trustworthy than their desktop counterparts. Hackers have already proved that they can take remote control of internet connected cars and pacemakers.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given above?
1. Computers are not completely safe.
2. Companies producing the software do not take cyber security seriously.
3. Stringent data security laws are needed.
4. The present trend of communication technologies will affect our lives in future.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Computers are not completely safe.
The passage stresses that computers are now built into cars, aeroplanes and medical devices, that these gadgets are no more trustworthy than desktops, and that hackers have already taken control of cars and pacemakers. The direct inference is that computers are not completely safe (a). Option (b) blames software companies and (c) proposes laws; neither is discussed. Option (d) is too vague and misses the point about vulnerability.
A social and physical environment riddled with poverty, inequities, unhygienic and insanitary conditions generates the risk of infectious diseases. Hygiene has different levels : personal, domestic and community hygiene. There is no doubt that personal cleanliness brings down the rate of infectious diseases. But the entry of the market into this domain has created a false sense of security that gets conditioned and reinforced by the onslaught of advertisements. Experience in Western Europe shows that along with personal hygiene, general improvements in environmental conditions and components like clean water, sanitation and food security have brought down infant/child death/infection rates considerably. The obsession with hand hygiene also brings in the persisting influence of the market on personal health, overriding or marginalising the negative impact on ecology and the emergence of resistant germs.
On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. People who are obsessed with personal hygiene tend to ignore the community hygiene. 2. Emergence of multi-drug resistant germs can be prevented by personal cleanliness. 3. Entry of the market in the domain of hygiene increases the risk of infectious diseases. 4. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases. 5. It is community hygiene implemented through public health measures that is really effective in the battle against infectious diseases. Which of the above assumptions are valid?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 4 and 5 only
The passage argues that market-driven personal hygiene gives a false sense of security, and that the big fall in infection and child death rates in Western Europe came from broader measures such as clean water, sanitation and food security. So individual, product-based (micro-level) interventions are not enough (4 is valid) and community or public health measures are what really work (5 is valid). Assumption 1 is about people's behaviour, which is not discussed. Assumption 2 is opposite to the passage, which links the obsession with hand hygiene to resistant germs. Assumption 3 overstates the point: the market creates a false sense of security, not a higher risk of disease. Hence 4 and 5 only.
A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below. You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts. Statement: Some cats are almirahs. Some almirahs are chairs. All chairs are tables. Conclusion-I: Certainly some almirahs are tables. Conclusion-II: Some cats may not be chairs.
1. Only Conclusion-I
2. Only Conclusion-II
3. Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
4. Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
Some almirahs are chairs and all chairs are tables, so those almirahs are certainly tables: Conclusion-I follows. Nothing links cats to chairs directly, so it is possible that some cats are not chairs; Conclusion-II only states this possibility ('may not be'), so it also follows. Hence both conclusions follow.
A boy plays with a ball and he drops it from a height of 1.5 m. Every time the ball hits the ground, it bounces back to attain a height 4/5th of the previous height. The ball does not bounce further if the previous height is less than 50 cm. What is the number of times the ball hits the ground before the ball stops bouncing?
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 5
Heights in cm: drop from 150; after each hit the rebound is 4/5 of the previous height: 120, 96, 76.8, 61.44, then 49.152. Hits 1 to 5 produce rebounds of 120, 96, 76.8, 61.44 and 49.152 cm. The rebound after the 5th hit is below 50 cm, so the ball stops bouncing there, giving 5 hits as per the official key. (If the final fall from 49.152 cm is also counted as a hit, one gets 6, but the key treats the ball as stopping after the 5th hit.)
Images of consonants of the English alphabet (Capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which do not look like their original shapes?
1. 13
2. 14
3. 15
4. 16
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 14
There are 21 consonants. In a mirror (left-right reversal) a capital letter looks the same only if it has a vertical line of symmetry. Among consonants these are H, M, T, V, W, X and Y, which is 7 letters. So 21 - 7 = 14 consonants look different in the mirror.
A bank employee drives 10 km towards South from her house and turns to her left and drives another 20 km. She again turns left and drives 40 km, then she turns to her right and drives for another 5 km. She again turns to her right and drives another 30 km to reach her bank where she works. What is the shortest distance between her bank and her house?
1. 20 km
2. 25 km
3. 30 km
4. 35 km
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 25 km
Put the house at (0, 0). 10 km South: (0, -10). Facing South, a left turn faces East: 20 km to (20, -10). Left again faces North: 40 km to (20, 30). Right faces East: 5 km to (25, 30). Right again faces South: 30 km to (25, 0). The bank is 25 km due East of the house, so the shortest distance is 25 km.
Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?
1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 9
For 7ab the other two digits must add to 3: 703, 712, 721, 730 (4 numbers). For 8ab they must add to 2: 802, 811, 820 (3 numbers). For 9ab they must add to 1: 901, 910 (2 numbers). 1000 has digit sum 1. Total = 4 + 3 + 2 = 9.
A woman runs 12 km towards her North, then 6 km towards her South and then 8 km towards her East. In which direction is she from her starting point?
1. An angle less than 45° South of East
2. An angle less than 45° North of East
3. An angle more than 45° South of East
4. An angle more than 45° North of East
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) An angle less than 45° North of East
Net movement: 12 - 6 = 6 km North and 8 km East. The direction from the start makes an angle with East whose tangent is 6/8 = 0.75, which is less than 1 (tan 45°). So she is at an angle of about 37°, less than 45°, North of East.
India faces a challenging immediate future in energy and climate policy-making. The problems are multiple : sputtering fossil fuel production capabilities; limited access to electricity and modern cooking fuel for the poorest; rising fuel imports in an unstable global energy context; continued electricity pricing and governance challenges leading to its costly deficits or surplus supply; and not least, growing environmental contestation around land, water and air. But all is not bleak: growing energy efficiency programmes; integrated urbanisation and transport policy discussions; inroads to enhancing energy access and security; and bold renewable energy initiatives, even if not fully conceptualised, suggest the promise of transformation.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?
1. India's energy decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.
2. India's energy and climate policy is heavily tuned to sustainable development goals.
3. India's energy and climate actions are not compatible with its broader social, economic and environmental goals.
4. India's energy decision-making process is straightforward supply-oriented and ignores the demand side.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) India's energy decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.
The passage lists many connected problems (production, access for the poor, imports, pricing and governance, environmental conflicts over land, water and air) along with several promising initiatives. Energy policy therefore has to balance many interlinked issues, which is the message of (a). Option (b) is not stated; the initiatives are 'not fully conceptualised'. Option (c) claims an incompatibility the passage never asserts, and (d) is contradicted by the many demand and access issues mentioned.
There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing these substances can create superbugs, pathogens that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along humans. Mindful of that, some farming companies have stopped using the drugs to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic growth promoters in the 1990s, the major pork exporter says it is producing more pigs - and the animals get fewer diseases.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?
1. People should avoid consuming the products of animal farming.
2. Foods of animal origin should be replaced with foods of plant origin.
3. Using antibiotics on animals should be banned.
4. Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.
The problem described is the use of antibiotics as growth promoters, which creates superbugs; the Denmark example shows that stopping this use did not hurt production. So the message is that antibiotics should be used only for treating disease, not for fattening animals (d). Option (c) is the tempting choice, but the passage objects only to growth-promoter use; a total ban would stop sick animals from being treated. Options (a) and (b) about avoiding animal products are not suggested.
Policy makers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economies. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices. 2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The passage blames high fuel prices, not oil producing countries, so assumption 1 shifts the blame to a party the passage does not name. The passage says mass consumption in emerging economies could create a food crisis; it does not say where the crisis will be felt, and rising food prices would affect the whole world. So assumption 2 is not valid either.
A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the level of GDP was once low, households, communities, and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the development lexicon, that if someone mentions "economic growth", we know they mean growth in GDP.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country. 2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The passage describes how central GDP has become to development thinking and what rising GDP does 'in theory'. It does not say that rising GDP is essential to become a developed country (1 goes beyond the text). It also says nothing about how income is distributed, and certainly gives no guarantee of fair distribution to all households (2 is not valid). Hence neither.
Seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed side by side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and the rest are old. P, R and S are law reports; the rest are Gazetteers. Books of old Gazetteers with blue covers are
1. Q and R
2. Q and U
3. Q and T
4. T and U
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Q and T
Blue covers: Q, R, T. Old books: all except S and U, i.e. P, Q, R, T, V. Gazetteers: all except P, R, S, i.e. Q, T, U, V. Books in all three groups (blue, old, Gazetteer): Q and T. R is a law report and U is new.
Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence 3, 2, 7, 4, 13, 10, 21, 18, 31, 28, 43, 40 where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern.
1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
4. 6
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 0
Odd-position terms: 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, 43, with differences 4, 6, 8, 10, 12. Even-position terms: 2, 4, 10, 18, 28, 40, with differences 2, 6, 8, 10, 12. For the same pattern the first difference must be 4, so working back from 4, the first even term should be 4 - 4 = 0. Check: the even terms 0, 4, 10, 18, 28, 40 are each 3 less than the odd terms. So 2 should be replaced by 0.
Following is a matrix of certain entries. The entries follow a certain trend row-wise. Choose the missing entry (?) accordingly. Row 1: 7B, 10A, 3C Row 2: 3C, 9B, 6A Row 3: 10A, 13C, ?
1. 9B
2. 3A
3. 3B
4. 3C
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 3B
In each row the middle number is the sum of the other two: 7 + 3 = 10 and 3 + 6 = 9, so in row 3, 10 + ? = 13 gives 3. Each row also uses each of the letters A, B and C once; row 3 already has A and C, so the letter is B. The missing entry is 3B.
You are given two identical sequences in two rows: Sequence-I: 8, 4, 6, 15, 52.5, 236.25 Sequence-II: 5, A, B, C, D, E What is the entry in the place of C for the Sequence-II?
1. 2.5
2. 5
3. 9.375
4. 32.8125
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 9.375
In Sequence-I each term is the previous one multiplied by 0.5, 1.5, 2.5, 3.5 and 4.5 in turn: 8 x 0.5 = 4, 4 x 1.5 = 6, 6 x 2.5 = 15, 15 x 3.5 = 52.5, 52.5 x 4.5 = 236.25. Applying the same rule from 5: A = 2.5, B = 3.75, C = 3.75 x 2.5 = 9.375.
A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The places are separated by a distance of 15 km. X walks with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr and Y walks with a uniform speed of 1 km/hr in the first hour, with a uniform speed of 1.25 km/hr in the second hour and with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr in the third hour and so on. Which of the following is/are correct? 1. They take 5 hours to meet. 2. They meet midway between A and B. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
In 5 hours X covers 1.5 x 5 = 7.5 km. Y covers 1 + 1.25 + 1.5 + 1.75 + 2 = 7.5 km. Together that is 15 km, the full distance, so they meet after 5 hours, and since each has walked 7.5 km, they meet exactly midway. Both statements are correct.
A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His marks in these papers are in the proportion of 5 : 6 : 7 : 8 : 9 : 10. Overall he scored 60%. In how many number of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 3
The average of the ratio terms is (5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10)/6 = 7.5, and this average corresponds to 60%. So one part = 60/7.5 = 8%. The six papers give 40%, 48%, 56%, 64%, 72% and 80%. Three papers (40%, 48%, 56%) are below 60%.
With respect to what are called denominations of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such thing as religion that is wrong; but if they are to be a judge of each other's religion, there is no such thing as a religion that is right, and therefore all the world is right or all the world is wrong in the matter of religion.
What is the most logical assumption that can be made from the passage given above?
1. No man can live without adhering to some religious denomination.
2. It is the duty of everyone to propagate one's religious denomination.
3. Religious denominations tend to ignore the unity of man.
4. Men do not understand their own religious denomination.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Religious denominations tend to ignore the unity of man.
The passage says each denomination thinks itself right and judges every other as wrong, so judged by one another, no religion is right. This shows that denominations look only at their own claims and divide people instead of seeing what is common to all, which is the idea in (c). Options (a) and (b) are not implied anywhere, and (d) is wrong because the passage says people do judge their own religion to be right, not that they misunderstand it.
It is certain, that seditions, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws are not so much to be imputed to the wickedness of the subjects, as to the bad state of a dominion. For men are not born fit for citizenship, but must be made so. Besides, men's natural passions are everywhere the same; and if wickedness more prevails, and more offences are committed in one commonwealth than in another, it is certain that the former has neither enough pursued the end of unity, nor framed its laws with sufficient forethought; and that, therefore, it has failed in making quite good its right as a commonwealth.
Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?
1. Seditions, wars and breach of the laws are inevitable in every dominion.
2. It is not the people, but the sovereign who is responsible for all the problems of any dominion.
3. That dominion is the best which pursues the aim of unity and has laws for good citizenship.
4. It is impossible for men to establish a good dominion.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) That dominion is the best which pursues the aim of unity and has laws for good citizenship.
The passage says that since human passions are the same everywhere, a state with more offences has failed to pursue unity and to frame laws with enough forethought, because citizens must be made fit for citizenship. The inference is that the best state pursues unity and has laws that produce good citizens (c). Option (b) is tempting but too sweeping: the passage says problems are 'not so much' due to subjects, not that the sovereign alone is responsible for all problems. Options (a) and (d) are contrary to the passage, which implies that a well-ordered state can reduce these troubles.
Inequality violates a basic democratic norm : the equal standing of citizens. Equality is a relation that obtains between persons in respect of some fundamental characteristic that they share in common. Equality is, morally speaking, a default principle. Therefore, persons should not be discriminated on grounds such as race, caste, gender, ethnicity, disability, or class. These features of human condition are morally irrelevant. The idea that one should treat persons with respect not only because some of these persons possess some special features or talent, for example skilled cricketers, gifted musicians, or literary giants, but because persons are human beings, is by now part of commonsense morality.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Equality is a prerequisite for people to participate in the multiple transactions of society from a position of confidence. 2. Occurrence of inequality is detrimental to the survival of democracy. 3. Equal standing of all citizens is an idea that cannot actually be realised even in a democracy. 4. Right to equality should be incorporated into our values and day-to-day political vocabulary. Which of the above assumptions are valid?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 3 and 4 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 4 only
The passage treats equal standing and equal respect for every person as a default moral principle that is now part of commonsense morality. This assumes that equal standing lets people take part in society with confidence and dignity (1), and that equality should be part of our everyday values and political language (4). Assumption 2 goes too far: the passage says inequality violates a democratic norm, not that it threatens the survival of democracy. Assumption 3 contradicts the passage's tone. Hence 1 and 4 only.
Aristocratic government ruins itself by limiting too narrowly the circle within which power is confined; oligarchic government ruins itself by the incautious scramble for immediate wealth. But even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy. Its basic principle is the equal right of all to hold office and determine public policy. This is, at first glance, a delightful arrangement; it becomes disastrous because the people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. The people have no understanding and only repeat what their rulers are pleased to tell them. Such a democracy is tyranny or autocracy. - Plato
Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?
1. Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.
2. Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.
3. Education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.
4. Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.
The passage shows each form of government destroying itself by overdoing its own principle: aristocracy by confining power too narrowly, oligarchy by the scramble for wealth, and democracy by an excess of democracy. That common pattern is option (b). Option (c) picks up the point about education but overstates it ('ensures a perfect' democracy). Option (a) is only descriptive, and (d) is not argued; the passage does not call government a necessary evil.
In a group of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners. Further, 70 persons in the group can speak English. The number of Indians who can speak English is
1. 20
2. 30
3. 30 or less
4. 30 or more
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 30 or more
There are 120 - 80 = 40 foreigners. Even if all 40 foreigners speak English, at least 70 - 40 = 30 of the English speakers must be Indians. The number could be higher (up to 70) if fewer foreigners speak English. So the number of Indians who speak English is 30 or more.
Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3. Let S be their sum. Which of the following is/are correct? 1. S is always divisible by 74. 2. S is always divisible by 9. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
The non-zero digits that are multiples of 3 are 3, 6 and 9. They form 3! = 6 numbers, and each digit appears twice in each place. So S = 2 x (3 + 6 + 9) x 111 = 36 x 111 = 3996. Now 3996 = 74 x 54 and 3996 = 9 x 444, so S is divisible by both 74 and 9. Both statements are correct.
There are two Classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In Class-A the highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In Class-B the highest score is 30 and lowest score is 22. Four students are shifted from Class-A to Class-B. Consider the following statements: 1. The average score of Class-B will definitely decrease. 2. The average score of Class-A will definitely increase. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
Every Class-A student scores at most 21, while every Class-B student scores at least 22, so Class-B's average is at least 22. Adding four students who each score at most 21 must pull Class-B's average down: statement 1 is correct. For Class-A, the effect depends on who moves: if the four shifted students had high scores (say 21), Class-A's average falls; if they had low scores (say 17), it rises. So statement 2 is not definitely true.
Consider two Statements and a Question: Statement-1: Priya is 4 ranks below Seema and is 31st from the bottom. Statement-2: Ena is 2 ranks above Seema and is 37th from the bottom. Question: What is Seema's rank from the top in the class of 40 students? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?
1. Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question
2. Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question
3. Either Statement-1 alone or Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
4. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Either Statement-1 alone or Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
Statement-1: Priya is 31st from the bottom in a class of 40, so she is 40 - 31 + 1 = 10th from the top; Seema is 4 ranks above her, i.e. 6th from the top. Statement-2: Ena is 37th from the bottom, i.e. 4th from the top; Seema is 2 ranks below her, i.e. 6th from the top. Each statement alone gives the answer, so (c).
Consider two Statements and a Question: Statement-1: Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but none of them is the heaviest. Statement-2: A is heavier than D, but is lighter than C. Question: Who is the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?
1. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
2. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
3. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question
4. Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question UPSC also accepted (d).UPSC ने (d) भी सही माना।
Statement-1 alone says A and D are heavier than B, E and F and that neither is 'the heaviest', but it says nothing about C, and the heaviest overall may be someone outside the group, so it does not fix the heaviest among A, B, C, D, E. Statement-2 alone gives C > A > D but says nothing about B and E. Together: C > A > D > B, E, so C is the heaviest. Both statements are needed, which is option (c), the keyed answer. UPSC accepted option (d) as well, because its wording, 'neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient', is also literally true here: when both statements are required together, neither one alone is enough. So both (c) and (d) are accepted answers.
In the English alphabet, the first 4 letters are written in opposite order; and the next 4 letters are written in opposite order and so on; and at the end Y and Z are interchanged. Which will be the fourth letter to the right of the 13th letter?
1. N
2. T
3. H
4. I
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) T
Reversing each block of four gives: D C B A | H G F E | L K J I | P O N M | T S R Q | X W V U | Z Y. The 13th letter is P (first letter of the fourth block). The fourth letter to its right is the 17th letter, which is T.
Nothing can exist in a natural state which can be called good or bad by common assent, since every man who is in a natural state consults only his own advantage, and determines what is good or bad according to his own fancy and insofar as he has regard for his own advantage alone, and holds himself responsible to no one save himself by any law; and therefore sin cannot be conceived in a natural state, but only in a civil state, which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?
1. The conceptions of what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state.
2. Unless a ruling authority decides as to what is right or wrong, no man would be morally right.
3. Man is inherently immoral and selfish in a natural state.
4. The idea of what is right or wrong is necessary for the survival of human species.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) The conceptions of what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state.
The passage says that in a natural state each person decides good and bad by his own advantage, so nothing is good or bad by common agreement, and sin can be conceived only in a civil state where good and bad are fixed by common consent. So shared ideas of right and wrong arise with the formation of a state (a). Option (b) wrongly makes a ruling authority, rather than common consent, the source of morality and speaks of individuals being 'morally right'. Option (c) passes a moral judgement on natural man, whereas the passage says such judgements cannot even be made in the natural state. Option (d) is not discussed.
In the immediate future, we will see the increasing commodification of many new technologies - artificial intelligence and robotics, 3D manufacturing, custom made biological and pharmaceutical products, lethal autonomous weapons and driverless cars. This will pose conundrums. The moral question of how a driverless car will decide between hitting a jaywalker and swerving and damaging the car has often been debated. The answer is both simple - save the human life - and complex. At which angle should the car swerve - just enough to save the jaywalker or more than enough ? If the driverless car is in Dublin, who would take the decision ? The Irish Government, or the car's original code writer in California, or a software programmer in Hyderabad to whom maintenance is outsourced ? If different national jurisdictions have different fine print on prioritising a human life, how will it affect insurance and investment decisions, including transnational ones ?
Which of the following statements best reflect the rational, plausible and practical implications that can be derived from the passage given above? 1. Too much globalization is not in the best interests of any country. 2. Modern technologies are increasingly blurring the economic borders. 3. Innovation and capital have impinged on the domain of the State. 4. Public policy of every country should focus on developing its own supply chains. 5. Geopolitics will have to reconcile to many ambiguities and uncertainties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1, 4 and 5 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
The Dublin example shows a car in one country, coded in another and maintained from a third, so technology is blurring economic borders (2). The question of whether the Irish Government or private code writers decide shows that innovation and capital now reach into areas that belonged to the State (3). Different national rules affecting insurance and transnational investment point to ambiguities and uncertainties that geopolitics must handle (5). Statements 1 and 4 are value judgements or policy prescriptions (against globalization, for self-reliant supply chains) that the passage does not make. Hence 2, 3 and 5 only.
The resolution of bankruptcy cases of Indian banks under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code should help bring non-performing assets (NPA) situation under some control. Despite the slow pace of resolutions by the National Company Law Tribunal, the Code can be helpful in cleaning up bank books in future credit cycles. The recapitalisation of public sector banks too can help increase the capital cushion of banks and induce them to lend more and boost economic activity. But bad debt resolution and recapitalisation are only a part of the solution as they, by themselves, can do very little to rein in reckless lending that has pushed the Indian banking system to its current sorry state. Unless there are systemic reforms that address the problem of unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will continue to stress the banking system.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage given above?
1. Lending by the banks should be closely monitored and regulated by the Central Government.
2. Interest rates should be kept low so as to induce banks to lend more, promote credit growth and thereby boost economic activity.
3. Merger of many banks into a few large banks alone is the long-term solution to make them viable and prevent their bad performance.
4. Indian banking system requires structural reforms as a long-term solution for bad loans problem.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Indian banking system requires structural reforms as a long-term solution for bad loans problem.
The passage ends by saying that bad debt resolution and recapitalisation are only part of the answer and that, without systemic reforms to address unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will keep stressing banks. This is option (d). Option (a) prescribes monitoring by the Central Government, which the passage does not suggest. Option (b) would encourage more lending, which is not the remedy for reckless lending. Option (c) about mergers is not mentioned.
In India, the objective of macroeconomic policy is to enhance the economic welfare of the people, and any one wing of such macro policy, monetary or fiscal, cannot independently work without active support of another.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the passage given above?
1. The central bank cannot work independently of the Government.
2. Government should regulate financial markets and institutions closely.
3. Market economy is not compatible with the socialist policies of the Government.
4. Financial sector reforms are required for enhancing the economic welfare of the people.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) The central bank cannot work independently of the Government.
Monetary policy is run by the central bank and fiscal policy by the Government. If one wing cannot work independently without the active support of the other, it follows directly that the central bank cannot work independently of the Government (a). Options (b), (c) and (d) bring in regulation of markets, socialism and financial sector reforms, none of which follows from the passage.
Consider the following Table: Player | Runs scored in the First Innings | Balls faced in the First Innings | Runs scored in the Second Innings | Balls faced in the Second Innings A | 61 | 99 | 14 | 76 B | 05 | 12 | 50 | 85 C | 15 | 75 | 20 | 50 D | 13 | 55 | 12 | 50 Who is the fastest run scorer in the Test Match?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) B
Compare total runs per ball over both innings. A: 75 runs off 175 balls = 0.43. B: 55 runs off 97 balls = 0.57. C: 35 runs off 125 balls = 0.28. D: 25 runs off 105 balls = 0.24. B scores fastest.
Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are under 25 years of age. Which one of the following statements is certainly correct?
1. All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.
2. Some villagers under 25 years of age are literate.
3. Only half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate.
4. No villager under 25 years of age has his own house.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Some villagers under 25 years of age are literate.
The fractions under 25 (4/5) and literate (1/3) add up to 4/5 + 1/3 = 17/15, which is more than the whole village. So the two groups must overlap by at least 2/15 of the villagers: some villagers under 25 are certainly literate. The other statements may or may not be true; for example, 1/2 cannot all be literate when only 1/3 are, so (a) is actually false.
Consider two Statements and a Question: Statement-1: The last day of the month is a Wednesday. Statement-2: The third Saturday of the month was the seventeenth day. Question: What day is the fourteenth of the given month? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?
1. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
2. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
3. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question
4. Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
Statement-2: the 17th is a Saturday, so the 14th, three days earlier, is a Wednesday. This alone answers the question. Statement-1 alone does not, because the month could have 28, 29, 30 or 31 days, so the date of the last Wednesday is unknown.
Which day is 10th October, 2027?
1. Sunday
2. Monday
3. Tuesday
4. Saturday
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Sunday
10th October 2021 was a Sunday. Each ordinary year moves the day forward by 1 and a year that includes 29th February moves it by 2. From Oct 2021 to Oct 2027: 2022 (+1), 2023 (+1), 2024 (+2, leap year), 2025 (+1), 2026 (+1), 2027 (+1) = 7 days, a whole week. So 10th October 2027 is also a Sunday.
Consider two Statements and four Conclusions given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts. Statement-1: Some greens are blues. Statement-2: Some blues are blacks. Conclusion-1: Some greens are blacks. Conclusion-2: No green is black. Conclusion-3: All greens are blacks. Conclusion-4: All blacks are greens. Which one of the following is correct?
1. Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 only
2. Conclusion-2 and Conclusion-3 only
3. Conclusion-3 and Conclusion-4 only
4. Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4
Two 'some' statements joined through blues give no definite relation between greens and blacks. The blues that are green may or may not be the blues that are black, so none of the four conclusions is certain. Conclusions 1 and 2 together form an either-or pair, but option (a) claims both follow, which is not possible. Hence none follows.
What is the value of 'X' in the sequence 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822?
1. 603
2. 605
3. 607
4. 608
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 607
Each term is 3 times the previous term plus 1: 2 x 3 + 1 = 7, 7 x 3 + 1 = 22, 22 x 3 + 1 = 67, 67 x 3 + 1 = 202, so X = 202 x 3 + 1 = 607. Check: 607 x 3 + 1 = 1822.
The best universities like Harvard and MIT, despite having the luxury of having some truly excellent teachers on their payroll, are increasingly embracing the "flipped classroom" format, where students listen to video lectures at home, and spend class time applying their knowledge, solving problems, discussing examples, etc. Professors guide that discussion and fill in wherever necessary, explaining those bits that seem to be eluding the students and throwing in advanced ideas that happen to be topical. These universities have made their video lectures available free for anyone in the world. They are also encouraging colleges and universities all over the world to integrate these online courses into their own pedagogy, picking the pieces that are appropriate for their needs and building a package around them.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?
1. Efficacy of universities would be better in online mode of conducting classroom tuition as compared to conventional method.
2. Availability of higher education can be made easier and cheaper without diluting the content.
3. We need not invest much in infrastructure related to higher education and yet develop better human and social capital.
4. Private sector institutions in higher education as well as coaching institutes can take advantage of this opportunity and thrive well.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Availability of higher education can be made easier and cheaper without diluting the content.
Top universities offer their high quality video lectures free to anyone and encourage other institutions to build them into their own teaching. So good content becomes widely and cheaply available without loss of quality (b). Option (a) is tempting, but the flipped classroom combines online lectures with in-class discussion; the passage does not claim online teaching is better than conventional teaching. Options (c) and (d) about infrastructure spending and private coaching are not discussed.
Our cities are extremely vulnerable to climate change because of large concentrations of populations and poor infrastructure. Moreover, population densities are increasing in them but we have not yet developed the systems to address climate change impacts. Our cities contribute to 65 per cent of the GDP, but there are not enough facilities to cater to the needs of the people. It is important to address the issues of air quality, transport, etc., that are vital to identifying sustainable solutions. We need to involve citizens in city planning and create an ecosystem that meets the needs of the people.
Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?
1. Our cities need to have well-defined administrative set-up with sufficient autonomy.
2. Ever increasing population densities is a hindrance in our efforts to achieve sustainable development.
3. To maintain and develop our cities we need to adopt sustainability related interventions.
4. Public-Private Partnership mode of development is the viable long-term solution for the infrastructure and sustainability problems of India.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) To maintain and develop our cities we need to adopt sustainability related interventions.
The passage describes cities that are vulnerable to climate change and short of facilities, and calls for addressing air quality and transport to find sustainable solutions with citizen participation. The inference is that cities need sustainability-related interventions (c). Option (b) turns rising density into the main obstacle, while the passage treats it as one factor alongside poor infrastructure and missing systems. Options (a) and (d) about administrative autonomy and PPP are not mentioned.
Jay and Vijay spent an equal amount of money to buy some pens and special pencils of the same quality from the same store. If Jay bought 3 pens and 5 pencils, and Vijay bought 2 pens and 7 pencils, then which one of the following is correct?
1. A pencil costs more than a pen
2. The price of a pencil is equal to that of a pen
3. The price of a pen is two times the price of a pencil
4. The price of a pen is three times the price of a pencil
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) The price of a pen is two times the price of a pencil
Let a pen cost x and a pencil cost y. Equal spending gives 3x + 5y = 2x + 7y, so x = 2y. A pen costs twice as much as a pencil.
P scored 40 marks more than Q in an examination. If Q scored 10% less marks than P, then how much did Q score?
1. 360
2. 380
3. 400
4. 420
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 360
Q = 0.9P, so the difference P - Q = 0.1P = 40, giving P = 400. Then Q = 400 - 40 = 360.
A person P asks one of his three friends X as to how much money he had. X replied, "If Y gives me ₹ 40, then Y will have half of as much as Z, but if Z gives me ₹ 40, then three of us will have equal amount." What is the total amount of money that X, Y and Z have?
1. ₹ 420
2. ₹ 360
3. ₹ 300
4. ₹ 270
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) ₹ 360
From the second condition, after Z gives X Rs 40, all three are equal: X + 40 = Y = Z - 40. So Y = Z - 40. From the first condition, Y - 40 = Z/2, i.e. Z - 80 = Z/2, giving Z = 160. Then Y = 120 and X = 120 - 40 = 80. Total = 80 + 120 + 160 = Rs 360.
In a code language 'MATHEMATICS' is written as 'LBSIDNZUHDR'. How is 'CHEMISTRY' written in that code language?
1. DIDLHRSSX
2. BIDNHTSSX
3. BIDLHTSSX
4. DGFLIRUQZ
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) BIDNHTSSX
Compare MATHEMATICS with LBSIDNZUHDR letter by letter: M-1 = L, A+1 = B, T-1 = S, H+1 = I, E-1 = D, M+1 = N, A-1 = Z, T+1 = U, I-1 = H, C+1 = D, S-1 = R. The letters are shifted alternately back 1 and forward 1. For CHEMISTRY: C-1 = B, H+1 = I, E-1 = D, M+1 = N, I-1 = H, S+1 = T, T-1 = S, R+1 = S, Y-1 = X, giving BIDNHTSSX.
At which one of the following times, do the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock make an angle of 180° with each other?
1. At 7:00 hours
2. Between 7:00 hours and 7:05 hours
3. At 7:05 hours
4. Between 7:05 hours and 7:10 hours
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Between 7:05 hours and 7:10 hours
At 7:00 the hour hand is 210° ahead of the minute hand. The minute hand gains 5.5° per minute on the hour hand, so the angle is 180° when 210 - 5.5m = 180, i.e. m = 30/5.5 = 5 5/11 minutes. That is about 7:05:27, which lies between 7:05 and 7:10.
In an objective type test of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions, a student got a total of 387 marks. What is the number of incorrect responses?
1. 9
2. 13
3. 27
4. 43
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 9
Let w be the number of wrong answers; then 90 - w are correct. Marks: 5(90 - w) - 2w = 387, so 450 - 7w = 387 and w = 63/7 = 9. Check: 81 correct x 5 = 405, minus 9 x 2 = 18, gives 387.
Consider the following addition problem: 3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are different digits. What is the arithmetic mean of all such possible sums?
1. 102
2. 120
3. 202
4. 220
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 202
Here 3P, 4P and PP are two-digit numbers, so the sum is (30 + P) + (40 + P) + 11P + 11P = 70 + 24P. Its last digit must be 2, so 4P must end in 2, which gives P = 3 or P = 8. P = 3: sum = 142 (R = 1, Q = 4, all different). P = 8: sum = 262 (R = 2, Q = 6, all different). Mean of the possible sums = (142 + 262)/2 = 202.
Consider the following multiplication problem: (PQ) x 3 = RQQ, where P, Q and R are different digits and R ≠ 0. What is the value of (P + R) ÷ Q?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 5
4. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2
The units digit of 3 x Q must be Q, so 2Q ends in 0, giving Q = 0 or 5. Q = 0 would need 30P = 100R, which has no solution with digits and R not 0. With Q = 5: (10P + 5) x 3 = 30P + 15 = 100R + 55, so 3P = 10R + 4, giving P = 8 and R = 2 (85 x 3 = 255). Then (P + R) ÷ Q = 10 ÷ 5 = 2.
Can a democracy avoid being a welfare state for long ? Why cannot mass welfare be left entirely to the markets ? There is a built-in tension between markets and democracy. Markets do not work on a one-person-one-vote principle as democracies do. What one gets out of the market place depends on one's endowments, skills, purchasing power and the forces of demand and supply. Markets reward individual initiative and skill, and may also lift many from the bottom rungs of society, but some people never get the opportunity to develop skills that markets demand; they are simply too poor and too handicapped; or skill formation takes too long. By creating jobs, markets may be able to help even unskilled people, but capitalism has always witnessed bursts of unemployment.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Modern democracies rely on the market forces to enable them to be welfare states. 2. Markets ensure sufficient economic growth necessary for democracies to be effective. 3. Government programmes are needed for those left behind in economic growth. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 3 only
The passage asks why mass welfare cannot be left to markets and answers that some people never gain the skills markets reward, and that capitalism brings bursts of unemployment. This assumes that the state must step in with its own programmes for those left behind (3). Assumption 1 is the opposite of the argument, which says welfare cannot be left entirely to markets. Assumption 2 is not discussed; the passage does not claim markets ensure sufficient growth. Hence 3 only.
In our schools, we teach our children all that is there to know about physics, maths and history and what-have-you. But do we teach them about the bitter caste divide that plagues the country, about the spectre of famine that stalks large parts of our land, about gender sensitivity, about the possibility of atheism as a choice, etc. ? Equally important, do we teach them to ask questions, or do we teach them only to passively receive our wisdom ? From the cocooned world of school, suddenly, the adolescent finds himself/herself in the unfettered world of university. Here he/she is swept up in a turmoil of ideas, influences and ideologies. For someone who has been discouraged from asking questions and forming an opinion, this transition can be painful.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?
1. School curriculum is not compatible with the expectations of children and parents.
2. Emphasis on academic achievements does give time for development of personality and skills.
3. Preparing the children to be better citizens should be the responsibility of the education system.
4. To be a better citizen, the present world order demands societal and life-coping skills in addition to academic content.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) To be a better citizen, the present world order demands societal and life-coping skills in addition to academic content.
The author says schools teach subjects well but not social realities (caste, famine, gender, belief) or the habit of questioning, so students struggle in the open world of university. The central idea is that, beyond academic content, children need social awareness and life-coping skills (d). Option (c) is tempting but only says the education system is responsible for citizenship; it misses the passage's specific point that academic content alone is not enough. Option (a) about parents' expectations is not discussed, and (b) is opposite to the author's concern.
There are three points P, Q and R on a straight line such that PQ : QR = 3 : 5. If n is the number of possible values of PQ : PR, then what is n equal to?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2
Take PQ = 3 and QR = 5. If Q lies between P and R, PR = 3 + 5 = 8, so PQ : PR = 3 : 8. If P lies between Q and R, PR = 5 - 3 = 2, so PQ : PR = 3 : 2. R cannot lie between P and Q, because QR (5) is longer than PQ (3). So there are 2 possible values and n = 2.
On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals along a straight path?
1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 12
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 6
A chess board has two diagonals (corner to corner), each with 8 squares. On a line of 8 squares, a block of 6 consecutive squares can start at square 1, 2 or 3, giving 3 ways. For the two diagonals, 3 x 2 = 6 ways, which is the keyed answer. (If every diagonal line of the board were counted, including the shorter ones of 7 and 6 squares, the total would be 18, which is not among the options, so the question means the two main diagonals.)
In the series _b_a_ba_b_abab_aab; fill in the six blanks ( _ ) using one of the following given four choices such that the series follows a specific order.
1. bababa
2. baabba
3. bbaabb
4. ababab
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) ababab
Filling the blanks with a, b, a, b, a, b gives abbaab abbaab abbaab, i.e. the block 'abbaab' repeated three times. The other choices break this repetition; for example, starting with b gives 'bbb' at the start, which does not repeat anywhere.
Using 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 as digits, how many distinct numbers greater than 30000 can be formed?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 12
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 6
All numbers formed are five-digit numbers, and they exceed 30000 only if the first digit is 3. The remaining digits 2, 2, 3, 3 can be arranged in 4!/(2! x 2!) = 6 distinct ways. So 6 numbers.
Consider the following statements: 1. The sum of 5 consecutive integers can be 100. 2. The product of three consecutive natural numbers can be equal to their sum. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement 1: the sum of 5 consecutive integers is 5 times the middle one, and 100 = 5 x 20, so 18 + 19 + 20 + 21 + 22 = 100. Correct. Statement 2: 1 x 2 x 3 = 6 and 1 + 2 + 3 = 6. Correct. Both statements are correct.
A cubical vessel of side 1 m is filled completely with water. How many millilitres of water is contained in it (neglect thickness of the vessel)?
1. 1000
2. 10000
3. 100000
4. 1000000
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1000000
Volume = 1 m x 1 m x 1 m = 1 cubic metre = 100 cm x 100 cm x 100 cm = 1,000,000 cubic cm. Since 1 cubic cm = 1 millilitre, the vessel holds 1,000,000 mL (that is, 1000 litres).
There are 6 persons arranged in a row. Another person has to shake hands with 3 of them so that he should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many distinct possible combinations can the handshakes take place?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 4
Number the persons 1 to 6. We need 3 positions with no two adjacent. Listing them: {1,3,5}, {1,3,6}, {1,4,6}, {2,4,6}. That is 4 combinations (the formula C(6 - 3 + 1, 3) = C(4, 3) = 4 agrees).
An amount of money was distributed among A, B and C in the ratio p : q : r. Consider the following statements: 1. A gets the maximum share if p is greater than (q + r). 2. C gets the minimum share if r is less than (p + q). Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
Statement 1: if p > q + r, then p is greater than q and greater than r (shares are positive), so A gets the most. Correct. Statement 2: r < p + q does not make r the smallest; for example p : q : r = 1 : 5 : 3 has r = 3 < 6, but A gets the least. Not necessarily correct. Hence 1 only.
Medieval merchants risked the hazards of the Silk Road to reach the markets of China; Portuguese caravels in the 15th century sailed beyond the bounds of the known world, searching less for knowledge than for gold and spices. Historically, the driver for opening frontiers has always been the search for resources. Science and curiosity are weaker drivers. The only way to open up space, whether the space of solar system or interstellar space is to create an economic engine and that engine is resource extraction.
Which one of the following statements best sums up the passage given above?
1. Wealth generation is the primary motive for any human endeavour.
2. Space, whether space in solar system or interstellar space, will govern our future economy.
3. Human beings are motivated to explore new frontiers principally by economic considerations.
4. Wealth generation is based on the risk-taking behaviour of some men.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Human beings are motivated to explore new frontiers principally by economic considerations.
The examples of the Silk Road merchants and the Portuguese caravels support one claim: the search for resources, not science or curiosity, has always driven the opening of new frontiers, and the same will be true of space. That is option (c). Option (a) generalises to 'any human endeavour', far beyond exploring frontiers. Option (b) reverses the relation; the passage says an economic engine is needed to open space, not that space will govern the economy. Option (d) is not argued.
"...... most people would agree that telling deliberate lies is wrong, except perhaps in certain special situations where more harm will be done by telling the truth. Even the most truthful people probably tell a good many more lies that might be regarded as semantic lies; their use of words contains some measure of falsehood, more or less deliberate."
The idea which the first part of the passage mentions is
1. agreement about telling lies.
2. disagreement about telling lies.
3. disagreement about telling the truth.
4. disagreement about the harm in telling the truth.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) disagreement about the harm in telling the truth.
The first sentence says most people agree that deliberate lies are wrong, but then adds an exception, 'except perhaps' where telling the truth would do more harm. The word 'perhaps' shows that this exception is the unsettled, debatable part: people differ on when telling the truth causes enough harm to justify a lie. The official key gives (d), disagreement about the harm in telling the truth. Option (a) is tempting because of the word 'agree', but it captures only the general rule and leaves out the qualification that the first part introduces.
"...... most people would agree that telling deliberate lies is wrong, except perhaps in certain special situations where more harm will be done by telling the truth. Even the most truthful people probably tell a good many more lies that might be regarded as semantic lies; their use of words contains some measure of falsehood, more or less deliberate."
Which one of the following habits is found more often in good people?
1. Mixing up the true and false
2. Intentional mixing up of truth with the false
3. Falsification of facts
4. Complete concealment of truth
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Intentional mixing up of truth with the false
The second sentence says even the most truthful people tell many 'semantic lies': their words contain some falsehood that is 'more or less deliberate'. So the habit is a somewhat intentional mixing of truth with falsehood (b). Option (a) leaves out the deliberate element the passage stresses. Options (c) and (d) describe outright falsification or full concealment, which the passage does not attribute to good people.
A pie diagram shows the percentage distribution of proteins, water and other dry elements in the human body. Given that proteins correspond to 16% and water corresponds to 70%. If both proteins and the other dry elements correspond to p%, then what is the central angle of the sector representing p on the pie diagram?
1. 54°
2. 96°
3. 108°
4. 120°
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 108°
Other dry elements = 100 - 16 - 70 = 14%. So p = 16 + 14 = 30% (equivalently, everything except water: 100 - 70). The central angle = 30% of 360° = 108°.
Joseph visits the club on every 5th day, Harsh visits on every 24th day, while Sumit visits on every 9th day. If all three of them met at the club on a Sunday, then on which day will all three of them meet again?
1. Monday
2. Wednesday
3. Thursday
4. Sunday
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Wednesday
They meet again after LCM(5, 24, 9) = 360 days. Since 360 = 7 x 51 + 3, the day moves forward by 3 from Sunday, giving Wednesday.
The difference between a 2-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits is 54. Consider the following statements: 1. The sum of the two digits of the number can be determined only if the product of the two digits is known. 2. The difference between the two digits of the number can be determined. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
(10a + b) - (10b + a) = 9(a - b) = 54, so the digits differ by 6: statement 2 is correct. The number could be 60, 71, 82 or 93, so the sum is not fixed. Knowing the product would fix it, but the product is not the only way: knowing, say, one of the digits or the number itself would also give the sum. So 'only if the product is known' is not correct, and the answer is 2 only.
X said to Y, "At the time of your birth I was twice as old as you are at present." If the present age of X is 42 years, then consider the following statements: 1. 8 years ago, the age of X was five times the age of Y. 2. After 14 years, the age of X would be two times the age of Y. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
Let Y's present age be y. X's age at Y's birth was 42 - y, and this equals 2y, so y = 14. Eight years ago: X was 34 and Y was 6; 34 is not 5 x 6, so statement 1 is wrong. After 14 years: X will be 56 and Y will be 28, and 56 = 2 x 28, so statement 2 is correct.
If the price of an article is decreased by 20% and then the new price is increased by 25%, then what is the net change in the price?
1. 0%
2. 5% increase
3. 5% decrease
4. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 0%
Take the price as 100. After a 20% decrease it is 80. A 25% increase on 80 adds 20, bringing it back to 100. Net change = 0% (0.8 x 1.25 = 1).
When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111...). What is the smallest such number?
1. 15713
2. 15723
3. 15783
4. 15873
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 15873
Divide numbers made of ones by 7: 11, 111, 1111 and 11111 leave remainders, but 111111 = 7 x 15873. So the smallest such number is 15873. Check: 15873 x 7 = 111111.
A man completes 7/8 of a job in 21 days. How many more days will it take him to finish the job if quantum of work is further increased by 50%?
1. 24
2. 21
3. 18
4. 15
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 15
7/8 of the job takes 21 days, so the whole job takes 21 x 8/7 = 24 days. If the work is increased by 50%, the total becomes 1.5 jobs. Work left = 1.5 - 7/8 = 5/8 of the original job, which needs 5/8 x 24 = 15 more days.

UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2021, General Studies Paper II (CSAT)

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

Menu

Explore

Language · भाषा