Maharashtra Civil Services Gazetted Combined Preliminary Examination 2026, Paper 2 (CSAT)

Series A. Questions and answers from the official MPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक MPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Questions 46, 47, 48, 49, 50 are based on reading passages taken from published works, so they are not reproduced here; you can solve them on the official paper.प्रश्न 46, 47, 48, 49, 50 प्रकाशित रचनाओं से लिए गए परिच्छेदों पर आधारित हैं, इसलिए वे यहाँ नहीं दिए गए हैं; उन्हें आधिकारिक पेपर पर हल कीजिए।

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real MPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
What was the main purpose of scientists behind the discovery of atomic energy ?
1. for diagnosis and treatment.
2. promoting the development of radar and submarines.
3. due to the limitation of minerals like coal and petrol new sources of energy have to be found.
4. creating devasting nuclear weapons to win the war.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) due to the limitation of minerals like coal and petrol new sources of energy have to be found.
The first paragraph says coal and petrol are limited and will fall short, so 'the scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy'. Medicine, radar, submarines and weapons are only listed later as uses, not as the purpose. Option (3).
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Who is known as father of atomic energy ?
1. Homi Bhabha
2. Vikram Sarabhai
3. Neil Bohr
4. Rutherford
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Rutherford
The passage opens: 'Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy.' Homi Bhabha is called the father of the Indian atomic age, which is different. Option (4).
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Match the correct pair : (a) Heavy water factory : (i) Malabar (b) Thorium reserves : (ii) Jadugad (c) Production of Uranium fuel : (iii) Cyrus (d) India's nuclear reactor : (iv) Telcher
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
From the passage: heavy (density) water plants are at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota, so (a)-(iv); thorium stocks are on the Malabar coast, (b)-(i); uranium fuel is made at Jadugad, (c)-(ii); Cyrus is one of the reactors at Turbhe, (d)-(iii). Option (4).
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
In which year, India established the Atomic Energy Commission ?
1. A.D. 1945
2. A.D. 1948
3. A.D. 1969
4. A.D. 1961
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) A.D. 1948
'The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948.' 1945 is the founding year of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research. Option (2).
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Where is Bhabha Atomic Research center located ?
1. Tarapur
2. Pokhran
3. Turbhe
4. Bengaluru
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Turbhe
The passage says the government named the atomic research centre at Turbhe near Mumbai the 'Bhabha Atomic Research Centre'. Option (3).
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
The rice-wheat system of the Indo-Gangetic plains fulfills the staple food requirements of how many people ?
1. 40 million
2. 400 million
3. 4000 million
4. 450 million
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 400 million
The second paragraph says the rice-wheat system 'meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people'. Option (2).
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
Which countries in South Asia are experiencing the effects of climate change on agricultural production ? Select the correct option.
1. India, Bangladesh, Nepal, China
2. India, Bangladesh and Japan
3. India, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Nepal
4. Bangladesh and Nepal
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) India, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Nepal
The vulnerable rice-wheat system discussed in the passage covers about 13.5 million hectares 'in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal'. China and Japan are not South Asian countries named in the passage, and option (4) leaves out two of the four. Option (3).
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
Select the consequences of threats to sustainability and food security in South Asia. (a) Low soil productivity and groundwater depletion. (b) Declining water availability and increased pest incidence. (c) Low literacy rate and lack of jobs. (d) Social discrimination and racism.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (a) and (c)
4. All above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) and (b)
The passage lists 'declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity' as what threatens sustainability and food security. That covers (a) and (b); literacy, jobs, discrimination and racism are never mentioned. Option (1).
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
What possible problems are climate change likely to create in the future for agricultural production in South Asia ? (a) Food production may decrease and poverty may increase. (b) Food production, especially rice and wheat will be adversely affected. (c) It will be beneficial for achieving sustainability and food security in South Asia. (d) Malnutrition and hunger rates may increase.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a), (b) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b) and (d)
Climate change is projected to have an 'often adverse impact' on agricultural production; heat extremes threaten rice and wheat (b); since agricultural productivity drives poverty reduction, lower output means more poverty (a), and lower staple food output for 400 million people points to more hunger and malnutrition (d). Statement (c) contradicts the passage, which says the region's food security is already threatened. Option (3).
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
What is the approximate percentage share of the agricultural sector in South Asia's (2011), Gross National Domestic Product (GDP) ?
1. 18 percent
2. 20 percent
3. 22 percent
4. 24 percent
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 18 percent
The passage opens: 'Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013)'. Option (1).
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Who lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishesh ecologically ?
1. Polar birds, Seals, Bears
2. Sea seals, birds, Penguins
3. Polar bears, Penguins, Seals
4. Seals, Polar birds
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Polar bears, Penguins, Seals
The third paragraph says: 'Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes.' No birds are mentioned. Option (3).
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
What happens due to permafrost ? (a) Locks up carbon twicely. (b) Turn solid ground into slush. (c) Add oxygen in water. (d) Release methane and NO2.
1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (a) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b)
The passage says thawing permafrost is 'turning solid ground into slush', so (b) holds. It releases methane and CO2, not NO2, so (d) is wrong; nothing is said about adding oxygen to water (c). Statement (a) garbles the passage, which says permafrost holds twice the carbon now in the atmosphere, not that it locks carbon up 'twicely'. The official MPSC key gives only (b), option (2).
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Observe the following statements. (a) Since the 1990s, Earths ice sheets, glaciers and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. (b) Arctic ocean ice extent is now 40% smaller than in 1980. (c) West Antarctica's marine based glaciers vulnerable because of melting of ice.
1. Statements (a) and (b) are correct
2. Statements (a) and (c) are not correct
3. Only statement (a) is correct
4. Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Statements (a) and (c) are not correct
(c) is not correct: the passage says West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers are vulnerable 'because warm ocean water eats at their undersides', not simply because of melting ice. (b) agrees with the passage (September Arctic sea ice extent is 40% smaller than in 1980). (a) also reads like the passage's opening figure of 28 trillion tonnes lost since the 1990s, so on a plain reading (a) and (b) look correct; however, the official MPSC key gives option (2), that statements (a) and (c) are not correct.
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Why the water security of 2 billion people is in endanger ?
1. Glacier retreat
2. Ice river flood
3. Ice melt in Himalaya and Alps
4. Flood in world rivers
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Glacier retreat
'Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies.' Option (3) names the Alps, which the passage does not link to these 2 billion people, and floods are not mentioned. Option (1).
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Who helps to regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoon in South Asia ?
1. Permafrost
2. Hydropower
3. Warm water stream from Greenland
4. Weaken Atlantic meridional overturning circulation
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Weaken Atlantic meridional overturning circulation
The passage says freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken 'the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia'. So the regulator is the AMOC (the circulation the passage describes as being weakened). Greenland sends freshwater, not warm water, and permafrost and hydropower play no such role. Option (4).
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
Analysis of GDP helps ________. (a) In understanding extent and direction of changes in international trade (b) In identifying structural changes in an economy (c) In formulation of policies by the government Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
1. Only Statement (c)
2. Statements (a) and (c)
3. Statements (a) and (b)
4. Statements (b) and (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Statements (b) and (c)
The first paragraph says GDP analysis helps 'to identify structural changes taking place in the economy' (b) and 'helps the government in formulating policies' (c). It reveals the extent and direction of changes in levels of economic development, not of international trade, so (a) is wrong. Option (4).
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the Maharashtra state economy is expected to grow at ________% whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at ________%.
1. 7.3;6.5
2. 8.7;4.9
3. 4.9;7.8
4. 7.3;7.8
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 7.3;6.5
'As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent.' Option (1).
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates 2024-25, real gross state value added of 'agriculture and allied activities' and 'services' sector is expected to grow at ________% and ________% respectively.
1. 8.7;4.9
2. 8.7;7.8
3. 7.8;8.7
4. 4.9;7.8
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 8.7;7.8
Real GSVA growth for Agriculture, Industry and Services is 8.7, 4.9 and 7.8 percent. Agriculture and Services are therefore 8.7 and 7.8. Option (2).
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates 2024-25, the real GVA of industry is expected to grow at ________% while the real GSVA of industry is expected to grow at ________% in 2024-25.
1. 6.5;5.6
2. 5.6;4.9
3. 4.9;7.8
4. 5.6;7.8
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 5.6;4.9
National real GVA (NSO estimates) for Industry grows at 5.6 percent; Maharashtra's real GSVA for Industry grows at 4.9 percent. Option (2).
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
The expected rise in gross state domestic product of Maharashtra in 2024-25, is due to which of the following factor/s ? (a) Expected stable growth in services sector (b) Expected increase in selected net product taxes (c) Expected dynamic reforms in state economy
1. Options (a) and (b) only
2. All of the above
3. Options (a) and (c) only
4. Options (b) and (c) only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Options (a) and (b) only
The second paragraph credits the momentum to the 'expected increase in selected expected Net product taxes and stable growth in Services sector'. That is (a) and (b). No reforms are mentioned, so (c) is not a stated factor. Option (1).
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following statement is correct ?
1. Electrons exist in the nucleus.
2. When electrons revolve around the nucleus, it emit light.
3. Electrons emit light when the average distance of the electrons from the nucleus remains constant.
4. When average distance of electrons changes from the nucleus, they emit light.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) When average distance of electrons changes from the nucleus, they emit light.
Per Bohr's model in the passage, while electrons revolve in fixed orbits the distance stays constant and nothing is emitted; 'when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy' (a spectral line). Electrons revolve around the nucleus, not inside it. Option (4).
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
The colour of light emitting diode (LED) depends on which of the physical quantity ?
1. Band gap energy
2. Applied voltage
3. Applied excess energy
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Band gap energy
Each LED colour corresponds to a wavelength range, which is set by engineering the semiconductor's band gap: reducing the band gap shifts the colour, and yellow LEDs need fine-tuned alloys 'to produce the correct band gap'. Voltage or excess energy only makes the LED emit; the band gap fixes the colour. Option (1).
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following light emitting diode (LED) consume lower energy ?
1. Red light emitting diode (LED)
2. Yellow light emitting diode (LED)
3. Purple light emitting diode (LED)
4. Green light emitting diode (LED)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Red light emitting diode (LED)
'Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy.' Red is at the long-wavelength end of the spectrum, while purple needs the highest energy. Option (1).
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following is an appropriate title for the above passage ?
1. Light emitting diode (LED) technology : From Bohr's atomic model to coloured light emission
2. From atomic theory of light emitting diode (LED) colours : A scientific overview
3. The physics behind light emitting diode (LED) and their spectral properties
4. Light emitting diode (LED) colours and wavelength : Principles of light emission in semiconductor
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Light emitting diode (LED) technology : From Bohr's atomic model to coloured light emission
The passage starts with Bohr's atomic model and electron jumps, applies that principle to LEDs, and ends with how each LED colour is produced. Option (1) covers this whole arc; the others stress only one part (the physics in general, or colours and wavelengths). Option (1).
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
By using Indium Gallium Nitride, which color light emitting diode (LED) emit ?
1. Red
2. Blue
3. Green
4. Yellow
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Green
'These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride.' Blue is mentioned only because the material can handle that energy too. Option (3).
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Arrange the following in correct chronological order (earliest to latest). (a) Appearance of Homo erectus (b) Existence of Dryopithecus (c) Development of prehistoric cave art (d) Rise of Australopithecines
1. (b), (d), (a), (c)
2. (b), (a), (d), (c)
3. (d), (b), (a), (c)
4. (b), (d), (c), (a)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (b), (d), (a), (c)
Dates from the passage: Dryopithecus about 15 mya (b), Australopithecines about 2 mya (d), Homo erectus about 1.5 mya (a), prehistoric cave art about 18,000 years ago (c). Order (b), (d), (a), (c), option (1).
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Why scientists believe that man like primates walked in Eastern Africa about 3-4 million years ago ?
1. Discovery of prehistoric cave paintings in central India
2. Discovery of stone tools used by Homo erectus in Java
3. Evidence of agriculture in early human settlements
4. Fossile evidence of man like bones with hominid features in Ethiopia and Tanzania
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Fossile evidence of man like bones with hominid features in Ethiopia and Tanzania
The passage says fossils of man-like bones found in Ethiopia and Tanzania 'revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa'. Option (4).
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Which of the following events occurred latest in the evolutionary and cultural history of humans according to the passage ?
1. Appearance of Neanderthal man
2. Development of prehistoric cave art
3. Emergence of Homo erectus
4. Evolution of primates in Paleocene epoch
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Development of prehistoric cave art
Paleocene primates date to about 63 mya, Homo erectus to about 1.5 mya, Neanderthals to 1,00,000-40,000 years ago, and prehistoric cave art to about 18,000 years ago. Cave art is the most recent. Option (2).
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
What is the central idea of the given paragraph ?
1. Structure and Functions of the human brain
2. Art and Culture of ancient humans
3. Origin of humans and their evolution from primates
4. Development of agriculture and human settlements
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Origin of humans and their evolution from primates
The passage traces man's place among the primates and the stages from Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus through Australopithecines, Homo habilis, Homo erectus and Neanderthals to Homo sapiens. Brain size, cave art and agriculture are side details. Option (3).
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Consider the following statements : (a) Australopithecines hunted with stone weapons but mainly ate fruit. (b) Homo habilis probably did not eat meat. (c) Homo erectus had smaller brain than Neanderthal man. (d) Neanderthal man lived between 75,000 - 10,000 years ago. Which of the above are correct ?
1. (a), (b) and (c) only
2. (b), (c) and (d) only
3. (a), (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(a) matches 'they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit'. (b) matches 'They probably did not eat meat' about Homo habilis. (c) is true: about 900 cc for Homo erectus against 1400 cc for Neanderthals. (d) is wrong: Neanderthals lived 1,00,000-40,000 years back; 75,000-10,000 years ago is when modern Homo sapiens arose. Option (1).
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
On what basis it could be known that, whether defendant had taken the due care established by law ?
1. Sudden Emergency
2. Experience
3. Fact
4. Evidence
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Fact
The passage says the question is not whether the defendant honestly thought his conduct careful 'but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law'. The test is the fact of the conduct. Option (3).
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
According to the paragraph what is care ?
1. is matter of degree
2. obligatory
3. duty
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) is matter of degree
The passage opens with its definition: 'Care is a matter of degree.' Duty and obligation describe the person's position, not what care is. Option (1).
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
What are those elements which imposes limits regarding the amount of care ? (a) Policy of law (b) Skill (c) Good sense (d) Nerve
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (b), (c) and (d) only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a) and (c) only
'Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve' required in an emergency. Good sense and policy of law are what impose the limit; care, skill and nerve are what is limited. Option (3).
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
Whether the standard of care be fixed or not ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Yes
The law must 'determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory'; 'that is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care'. Option (2).
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
Why the law allows the danger to be created knowingly ?
1. There is no risk at all
2. The danger is invisible
3. The danger is small
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) The danger is small
'The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created.' The passage admits some risk exists, so (1) is wrong. Option (3).
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
What was the nature of the administrative structure under the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
1. Decentralised and autonomous Provinces
2. Rigidly centralised with unitary control
3. Federal System with Shared Power
4. Antonomous regions governed by local chiefs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Rigidly centralised with unitary control
'The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised.' Provinces were headed by Governors under this central control, so they were not autonomous or federal. Option (2).
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
Who exercised the powers of the Crown in India according to the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
1. Secretary of State for India
2. Indian Civil Service
3. Council of India
4. East India Company directors
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Secretary of State for India
'By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India).' The Council only assisted. Option (1).
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
What was the dominant principle of the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
1. Popular Participation in Administration
2. Absolute Imperial Control
3. Shared governance with Indian representatives
4. Decentralised Administration
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Absolute Imperial Control
The Act 'was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country'. Option (2).
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
Who assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company in 1858 ?
1. British Parliament
2. British Crown
3. Indian National Congress
4. British Multinational Company
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) British Crown
1858 is the year 'when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company'. Parliament enacted the statute but sovereignty passed to the Crown. Option (2).
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
How was India governed under the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
1. By Local elected councils
2. By a Governor-General appointed by the Indian People
3. By the British Parliament directly
4. By the Secretary of State for India through the Governor-General
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) By the Secretary of State for India through the Governor-General
'The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council.' There were no elected councils or popular appointments. Option (4).
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
आइन्स्टाइन यांना कोणत्या शाखेसाठी असणारे नोबेल पारितोषिक प्राप्त झाले ?
1. भौतिकशास्त्र
2. रसायनशास्त्र
3. जीवशास्त्र
4. वनस्पतीशास्त्र
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) भौतिकशास्त्र
The passage says that in 1922 Einstein received the Nobel Prize for the physics branch (padarthavidnyan shakha). Physics (bhautikshastra) is option (1).
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
आइन्स्टाइनच्या विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ केव्हापासून सुरू होतो ? (अ) बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलविल्यानंतर (ब) पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयातील नोकरी सोडल्यानंतर (क) आपले जगणे, आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे हे जीवनाचे सूत्र न कळाल्यामुळे. (ड) शोधनिबंध आणि पीएच.डी. पदवी संपादनासाठी स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केल्यानंतर
1. (अ) आणि (क) बरोबर
2. (ब) आणि (ड) बरोबर
3. (अ) आणि (ड) बरोबर
4. (क) आणि (ड) बरोबर
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (ब) आणि (ड) बरोबर
The first paragraph tells of his junior job at the Bern patent office, his research papers and the thesis that won him a Zurich Ph.D., after which the university invited him as a professor. The second paragraph begins 'from here on' (yethun pudhe) Einstein experienced a period rich in ideas. So the period starts after he left the patent office job for academia (b) and after publishing his papers and thesis (d). The visit to the Queen of Belgium (a) came much later, and (c) twists his saying about living for others. Option (2).
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
आइन्स्टाइन हा कोणत्या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता ?
1. सॉक्रेटीस
2. प्लेटो
3. रॉजर बेकन
4. स्पिनोझा
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) स्पिनोझा
The passage states that Einstein was an admirer of the philosopher Spinoza. Option (4).
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
बेल्जियमच्या राणीस आइन्स्टाइन भेटावयास गेला होता. याबाबतीत पुढील विधाने वाचून योग्य पर्याय निवडा. (अ) बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटावयास बोलविले होते. (ब) तो राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. (क) त्याच्या हातात सुटकेस व व्हायोलिन होते. (ड) स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी फक्त वाहने होती.
1. फक्त (अ) व (ब) बरोबर
2. फक्त (अ), (क) व (ड) बरोबर
3. फक्त (अ), (ब) व (क) बरोबर
4. सर्व पर्याय बरोबर
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) फक्त (अ), (ब) व (क) बरोबर
The passage says the Queen of Belgium invited him (a), he walked to the palace (b) with a suitcase in one hand and a violin in the other (c). Statement (d) is wrong because both vehicles and officials were waiting at the station, not only vehicles. Option (3).
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
योग्य जोड्या लावून पर्याय ओळखा : (a) वयाच्या 23 व्या वर्षी : (i) सापेक्षतावादावरील ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध (b) 1905 मध्ये : (ii) झुरिच विद्यापीठात प्रवेश (c) 1922 मध्ये : (iii) दुय्यम नोकरी प्राप्त (d) 1909 मध्ये : (iv) नोबेल पुरस्कार प्राप्त
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
From the passage: in his 23rd year he took a junior job at the Bern patent office, (a)-(iii); in 1905 his book on relativity was published, (b)-(i); in 1922 he won the Nobel Prize, (c)-(iv); in 1909 he joined Zurich University, (d)-(ii). Option (3).
The price of a computer is first increased by 5% and later decreased by 5%. What is change in the original price of the computer ? Select the correct option.
1. 0.25% increase
2. 0.36% increase
3. 1% decrease
4. 0.25% decrease
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 0.25% decrease
Let the price be 100. After a 5% rise it is 105; a 5% fall gives 105 x 0.95 = 99.75. Net change = -0.25, i.e. a 0.25% decrease. (Shortcut: +a% then -a% gives a net change of -a^2/100 = -25/100 = -0.25%.) Option (4).
Five friends gather together for a reunion after 12 years of completion of their degree education. Each of them is engaged in different fields. There is a data scientist, an agriculturist, a farmer, a social worker and an educationist amongst them. The data scientist came from Bengaluru, the agriculturist and the farmer, both came from Pune, Jaya was last to arrive as her train delayed from Hyderabad and she is not a farmer. Vipul the data scientist arrived first. Gilbert is not from Pune. The other two friends are Dinu and Siraj and one friend has come from Mumbai. Select the profession of Dinu.
1. Farmer
2. Social worker
3. Agriculturist
4. Data insufficient
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Data insufficient
Vipul is the data scientist (Bengaluru); Jaya comes from Hyderabad. The two Pune friends are the agriculturist and the farmer. Gilbert is not from Pune, so he is the Mumbai friend; that leaves Dinu and Siraj as the two from Pune. So Dinu is either the agriculturist or the farmer, and nothing decides which. Option (4), data insufficient.
Manoj purchased 50 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 70 per kg and another 30 kg rice at certain rate. He mixed the two and sold the entire quantity at the rate of Rs. 65 per kg. and made 20% overall profit. At what price per kg did he purchased a lot of another 30 kg rice ?
1. Rs. 22.70
2. Rs. 27.78
3. Rs. 27.50
4. Rs. 25.50
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Rs. 27.78
Selling price = 80 x 65 = Rs. 5200. With 20% profit, cost = 5200 / 1.2 = Rs. 4333.33. The first lot cost 50 x 70 = Rs. 3500, so the 30 kg lot cost 4333.33 - 3500 = Rs. 833.33, i.e. 833.33 / 30 = Rs. 27.78 per kg. Option (2).
In a cupboard six books are kept. All of the books are labelled as L, M, N, O, P and Q. The books which are labelled as M, P, N and Q are wrapped with blue colour paper; while remaining are with red in colour. L, M, Q labelled books are new books while remaining are old books. L, M and N labelled books are law books, while remaining are engineering books. Then which law book is wrapped with different colour ?
1. P
2. N
3. L
4. M
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) L
Law books are L, M and N. M and N are wrapped in blue, while L (not in the blue list) is wrapped in red. So L is the law book with the different colour. Option (3).
Given below are four arguments of three sentences each. Choose the set in which the last statement is a logically correct conclusion based on first two statements.
1. Sana is an actress. Some actresses are pretty. Sana is pretty.
2. All singers are patriotic. Some dancers are managers. Some dancers are patriotic.
3. Some women are soldiers. All soldiers are patriotic. Some women are patriotic.
4. All actors are handsome. Edi is not an actor. Edi is not handsome.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Some women are soldiers. All soldiers are patriotic. Some women are patriotic.
(3): the women who are soldiers are, like all soldiers, patriotic, so some women are patriotic; this is valid. (1) fails because Sana need not be among the 'some' pretty actresses; (2) has no link between dancers and singers; (4) wrongly denies the antecedent, since non-actors can still be handsome. Option (3).
A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What is the area of the circle ?
1. 88 sq. cm
2. 154 sq. cm
3. 1250 sq. cm
4. 616 sq. cm
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 616 sq. cm
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(18 + 26) = 88 cm. So 2 x (22/7) x r = 88, giving r = 14 cm. Area = (22/7) x 14 x 14 = 616 sq. cm. Option (4).
Select correct option in place of question mark, in the following figure. [Figure: three triangles, each with a number at the left corner, the right corner and below, and one number inside. Triangle 1: left 5, right 6, bottom 4, inside 12. Triangle 2: left 6, right 7, bottom 5, inside 21. Triangle 3: left 4, right 8, bottom 10, inside ?]
This question has a figure in the official paper; it is described in words above.इस प्रश्न में आधिकारिक पेपर में एक चित्र है; ऊपर उसे शब्दों में बताया गया है। See the official paperआधिकारिक पेपर देखिए
1. 30
2. 32
3. 34
4. 40
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 32
Inside number = product of the three outer numbers divided by 10: 5 x 6 x 4 = 120, 120/10 = 12; 6 x 7 x 5 = 210, 210/10 = 21; so 4 x 8 x 10 = 320, 320/10 = 32. Option (2).
In question below are given two statements followed by two Conclusions (I) and (II). You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the following given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements : All artist are smoker. Some smokers are drunkards. Conclusions : (I) All smokers are artist. (II) Some drunkards are not smokers.
1. Only conclusion (I) follows.
2. Only conclusion (II) follows.
3. Either conclusion (I) or (II) do not follow.
4. Conclusions (I) and (II) both follow.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only conclusion (II) follows.
(I) clearly does not follow: 'all artists are smokers' cannot be reversed into 'all smokers are artists'. For (II), the statements only say that some smokers are drunkards; on a strict reading they do not prove that any drunkard lies outside the smokers group, though nothing rules it out either. The official MPSC key treats (II) as following and gives option (2), only conclusion (II) follows.
In the following statement which number will come in place of question mark ? 52 : 84 : : 124 : ___?___.
1. 175
2. 172
3. 112
4. 192
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 172
52 = 7^2 + 3 and 84 = 9^2 + 3 (the base goes up by 2). Likewise 124 = 11^2 + 3, so the answer is 13^2 + 3 = 169 + 3 = 172. Option (2).
Select correct alternative in place of the question mark. BLOCKED : YOLXPVW : : ? : OZFMXS
1. DEBATE
2. RESULT
3. LABOUR
4. LAUNCH
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) LAUNCH
Each letter is replaced by its opposite in the alphabet (A-Z, B-Y, C-X ...): B-Y, L-O, O-L, C-X, K-P, E-V, D-W gives YOLXPVW. Decoding OZFMXS the same way: O-L, Z-A, F-U, M-N, X-C, S-H, which spells LAUNCH. Option (4).
Swapnil, Anil, Deepak, Prashant and Sunil are standing around a circular table facing the centre. Only Prashant is between Anil and Sunil. Deepak is immediately to the right of Sunil. Who is to the right of Swapnil ?
1. Sunil
2. Prashant
3. Anil
4. Deepak
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Anil
Anil, Prashant, Sunil sit together in that order. Deepak sits immediately to Sunil's right, which takes the seat on the side away from Prashant. Swapnil fills the last seat, between Deepak and Anil. Going round to the right (anticlockwise for people facing the centre): Anil, Prashant, Sunil, Deepak, Swapnil, then back to Anil. So Anil is to Swapnil's right. Option (3).
'P' is shorter than 'Q'; 'Q' is not taller than 'R'; 'S' is taller than 'T', but shorter than 'U'; 'U' is not taller than 'P'. Which of the following statement is not true ?
1. Two are shorter than 'S'
2. 'Q' is taller than 'U'
3. 'P' is shorter than 'R'
4. Two are taller than 'P'
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Two are shorter than 'S'
Combining: T < S < U <= P < Q <= R. Only T is shorter than S, so 'two are shorter than S' is false. Q > P >= U, so (2) is true; P < Q <= R, so (3) is true; Q and R are taller than P, so (4) is true. Option (1).
Suresh, Ramesh and Ganesh started a business in partnership by investing certain amounts. After one year, they earned profits of Rs. 2,600, Rs. 3,900 and Rs. 6,500 respectively. Based on the information, Choose the correct statement. (I) Their capital investments were in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. (II) Ganesh's investment was more than 60% of the total initial capital.
1. Only (I) is correct
2. Only (II) is correct
3. Both (I) and (II) are correct
4. Both (I) and (II) are not correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (I) is correct
All three invested for the same one year, so capital is in the ratio of profit: 2600 : 3900 : 6500 = 2 : 3 : 5 (divide by 1300). (I) is correct. Ganesh's share is 5/10 = 50% of the capital, not more than 60%, so (II) is wrong. Option (1).
A sum of ₹ 1710 is divided in A, B and C such that 4 times of A, 6 times of B and 9 times of C, are equal. What is the difference between the amounts of 'A' and 'C' ?
1. ₹ 360
2. ₹ 450
3. ₹ 480
4. ₹ 540
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) ₹ 450
4A = 6B = 9C = k, so A : B : C = 1/4 : 1/6 : 1/9 = 9 : 6 : 4 (multiply by 36). Total 19 parts = 1710, so 1 part = 90. A = 810 and C = 360, a difference of ₹ 450. Option (2).
Two trains are moving towards each other on parallel tracks. Train A is 200 m long and moving at a speed of 50 km/h. Train B is 250 m long and moving at a speed of 40 km/h. How long will it take for the trains to cross each other ?
1. 10 seconds
2. 15 seconds
3. 18 seconds
4. 20 seconds
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) 18 seconds
Moving towards each other, the relative speed is 50 + 40 = 90 km/h = 90 x 5/18 = 25 m/s. The distance to cover is the sum of the lengths, 200 + 250 = 450 m. Time = 450 / 25 = 18 seconds. Option (3).
Select correct option in place of question mark. ACE : 26 10 : : LOQ : ?
1. 12 15 17
2. 24 30 34
3. 22 22 24
4. 22 24 26
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 24 30 34
The code (printed '26 10', i.e. 2 6 10) is twice each letter's position: A = 1 gives 2, C = 3 gives 6, E = 5 gives 10. For LOQ: L = 12 gives 24, O = 15 gives 30, Q = 17 gives 34, so 24 30 34. Option (2).
In a survey of 425 students in a school, it was found that 115 drink Apple juice, 160 drink Orange juice and 80 drink both Apple as well as Orange juice. How many students drink neither Apple juice nor Orange juice ?
1. 150
2. 230
3. 70
4. 280
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 230
Students who drink at least one = 115 + 160 - 80 = 195. Neither = 425 - 195 = 230. Option (2).
Three statements are given followed by two conclusions derived from them. Decide which of the conclusions logically follows. Statements : (1) All pens are papers. (2) Some papers are blades. (3) All blades are knives. Conclusions : (I) Some knives are papers. (II) Some blades are pens.
1. Only conclusion (I) follows
2. Only conclusion (II) follows
3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) not follow
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only conclusion (I) follows
Some papers are blades and all blades are knives, so those papers are knives: some papers are knives, i.e. some knives are papers, so (I) follows. Pens are linked to blades only through 'some papers', and the papers that are blades need not be pens, so (II) does not follow. Option (1).
Select the appropriate representative figure from the available options for the given set. Set : Female, Widow, Mothers [Figure: four circle diagrams. (1) a large circle with a small circle inside it, and a separate circle beside it; (2) three circles in a row, each overlapping the next; (3) a large circle containing two smaller circles that overlap each other; (4) two large overlapping circles with a small circle inside their common area.]
This question has a figure in the official paper; it is described in words above.इस प्रश्न में आधिकारिक पेपर में एक चित्र है; ऊपर उसे शब्दों में बताया गया है। See the official paperआधिकारिक पेपर देखिए
1. Figure (1): a circle inside a circle, plus a separate circle
2. Figure (2): three circles in a chain, each overlapping the next
3. Figure (3): two overlapping circles inside a larger circle
4. Figure (4): a small circle inside the overlap of two large circles
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Figure (3): two overlapping circles inside a larger circle
Every widow and every mother is a female, so both sets lie inside the 'female' circle. Some widows are mothers and some are not, so the widow and mother circles overlap. That is two overlapping circles inside a larger circle. Option (3).
Some statements are followed by the conclusions, derived from them. Select correct option about conclusions. Statements : All laws are rules. Some rules are flexible. No flexible thing is permanent. Conclusions : (I) Some laws are not permanent. (II) All laws are permanent.
1. Only (I) is correct definitely
2. Only (II) is correct definitely
3. Both are correct definitely
4. Both are not correct definitely
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Both are correct definitely
The flexible rules need not include any law, so the statements do not settle whether any law is permanent: (I) is not forced, and neither is (II). (I) and (II) also contradict each other, so they cannot both be true at once. On strict syllogism neither conclusion follows definitely. However, the official MPSC key gives option (3).
In a competition, the ranking of five students Amit, Bina, Sita, Dinesh and Esha is as follows : - Amit is ranked higher than Bina but lower than Sita. - Dinesh is ranked lower than Esha but higher than Amit. - Esha is not ranked first. What is the ranking of Bina with reference to higher merit ?
1. 3rd
2. 4th
3. 5th
4. 2nd
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) 5th
Sita > Amit > Bina and Esha > Dinesh > Amit. Esha is not first, so Sita is first. Order: Sita, Esha, Dinesh, Amit, Bina. Bina is 5th. Option (3).
Ayush was born two years after his father's marriage. His mother is five years younger than his father but 20 years older than Ayush, who is 10 years old. At what age did the father get married ?
1. 23 years
2. 25 years
3. 33 years
4. 35 years
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 23 years
Ayush is 10, so his mother is 10 + 20 = 30 and his father 30 + 5 = 35. The marriage was 10 + 2 = 12 years ago, so the father married at 35 - 12 = 23. Option (1).
In the following question, two Statements (A) and (B) are given. These statements may be either cause or may be effects of independent causes or common causes. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these statements. Statements : (A) The departmental store owner put cameras for surveillance of the store. (B) Many products were reported missing by the staff working in the departmental store.
1. Statement (A) is the cause and Statement (B) is its effect.
2. Statement (B) is the cause and Statement (A) is its effect.
3. Both the Statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
4. Both the Statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Statement (B) is the cause and Statement (A) is its effect.
Products going missing (B) is a natural reason for the owner to install surveillance cameras (A). Cameras would not make products go missing. So (B) is the cause and (A) the effect. Option (2).
Kamal has scored more marks than Nayan but fewer marks than Aarti. Rekha has scored more marks than Neelam but fewer marks than Aarti. Neelam has scored more marks than Nayan but fewer marks than Kamal. Kamal has scored fewer marks than Rekha but more than Nayan. Who will be at second number in terms of higher marks ?
1. Aarti
2. Rekha
3. Kamal
4. Neelam
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Rekha
Aarti is above Kamal and Rekha; Rekha is above Kamal; Kamal is above Neelam; Neelam is above Nayan. Order: Aarti, Rekha, Kamal, Neelam, Nayan. Rekha is second. Option (2).
A is the son of B. C is the wife of B. D is the sister of A. E is married with D. How is C related to E ?
1. Mother
2. Mother-in-law
3. Grandmother
4. Sister
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Mother-in-law
C is B's wife, so she is the mother of A and of A's sister D. E is D's spouse, so C is E's mother-in-law. Option (2).
You have been working on a project with two co-workers for one month. They have always had trouble getting along, but lately it has become much worse. With two weeks left to complete the project, their differences are now affecting the quality of your shared project. There are many mistakes in their work and they have stopped communicating with each other. How should you cope with the situation ?
1. Work overtime to fix your co-workers' mistakes.
2. Have a meeting with your co-workers so that you can help them resolve their issues.
3. Meet them separately so that you can understand their side of the issue.
4. Tell them that they better improve their relationship as the project is suffering.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Meet them separately so that you can understand their side of the issue. Graded question, no negative marking. Marks for each option: (1) 0, (2) 1.5, (3) 2.5, (4) 1.श्रेणीबद्ध प्रश्न, कोई नेगेटिव मार्किंग नहीं। हर विकल्प के अंक: (1) 0, (2) 1.5, (3) 2.5, (4) 1।
Best (2.5 marks): meet each co-worker separately (3). With two people who have stopped talking, private meetings let each speak freely and let you understand the real problem before trying to bring them together. A joint meeting straight away (2) is reasonable but risks a confrontation (1.5). Simply telling them to improve (4) offers no help (1). Quietly fixing their mistakes (1) leaves the cause untouched and is not sustainable (0).
You have sent a survey to multiple units in order to gauge level of job satisfaction as part of a wide internal survey across the organization. When the results arrive back, you see that by far the biggest cause of dissatisfaction seems to be the pay levels. However, your manager has suggested that in reality staff are contented with their pay. This survey is just seen as an opportunity to ask for more. There is no time or budget to repeat the survey, you need to decide how to proceed. What would be the most effective answer ?
1. Conduct some online research into other surveys of this nature to see whether this is common pattern : include the observation in report and recommendations.
2. Accept your manager's views and highlight this in your summary report and recommendations.
3. Accept the original data and avoid including your manager's interpretation when collating the summary report and recommendations.
4. Declare the results of the survey around pay level to be 'ambiguous' and instead concentrate on the second most important areas of the survey.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Declare the results of the survey around pay level to be 'ambiguous' and instead concentrate on the second most important areas of the survey. Graded question, no negative marking. Marks for each option: (1) 1.5, (2) 1, (3) 0, (4) 2.5.श्रेणीबद्ध प्रश्न, कोई नेगेटिव मार्किंग नहीं। हर विकल्प के अंक: (1) 1.5, (2) 1, (3) 0, (4) 2.5।
Best (2.5 marks), as per the official MPSC marking: declare the pay-level result ambiguous and concentrate on the next most important areas (4). Your manager has given a credible reason to doubt the pay answers and the survey cannot be repeated, so the honest course is to report that finding as unclear rather than as fact, and put your effort into the findings that can be acted on with confidence. Checking similar surveys online (1) adds some context but no evidence about your own staff (1.5). Simply adopting the manager's view (2) overrides the data with an opinion (1). Presenting the raw data while hiding a known doubt about it (3) gives a misleading report (0).
You have been working as a project head in a multinational company for several years. You discover that a project you have been leading for six months is unlikely to meet its core objectives due to shift in the market trends. What do you do ?
1. I will continue the project as planned to ensure the time and money already spent are not wasted.
2. I will delay the project for further one year to wait the market trends shift.
3. I will present the data to leaders and recommend "pivoting" or terminating the project.
4. I will resign from my post, so the failure in the project will not be mine.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) I will present the data to leaders and recommend "pivoting" or terminating the project. Graded question, no negative marking. Marks for each option: (1) 1.5, (2) 1, (3) 2.5, (4) 0.श्रेणीबद्ध प्रश्न, कोई नेगेटिव मार्किंग नहीं। हर विकल्प के अंक: (1) 1.5, (2) 1, (3) 2.5, (4) 0।
Best (2.5 marks): present the evidence to leadership and recommend changing direction or ending the project (3). This is transparent, uses data and limits further loss. Carrying on as planned (1) falls into the sunk-cost trap (1.5). Waiting a year for the market (2) adds cost and uncertainty (1). Resigning to avoid blame (4) abandons responsibility (0).
You and your friend Prashant had gone for shopping in nearby mall. You both enter a book shop and as you both were coming out after browsing, the shops anti-theft alarm goes on, making the security people to stop and frisk you both and much to your surprise, Prashant was hiding a book in his Jacket pocket. How will you handle the situation ?
1. You will stand aside and let Prashant handle it.
2. You will step in and try to manage the situation.
3. You will apologize on behalf of Prashant and will offer to pay for the book.
4. You will call Prashants' brother and request him to come to the shop to help you out.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) You will apologize on behalf of Prashant and will offer to pay for the book. Graded question, no negative marking. Marks for each option: (1) 0, (2) 1.5, (3) 2.5, (4) 1.श्रेणीबद्ध प्रश्न, कोई नेगेटिव मार्किंग नहीं। हर विकल्प के अंक: (1) 0, (2) 1.5, (3) 2.5, (4) 1।
Best (2.5 marks): apologise on Prashant's behalf and offer to pay for the book (3). This admits the wrong, compensates the shop and calms the situation quickly. Stepping in to manage it (2) is supportive but vague (1.5). Calling his brother (4) only delays matters (1). Standing aside (1) abandons your friend in a situation you are part of (0).
Land acquisition is underway for a major government project that will bring development to the state. However, local farmers are refusing to give up their land as it is their only source of livelihood. As the land Acquisition officer, what will you do ?
1. Take help from the police to forcibly take positions as the project is in the state's interest.
2. Respect the farmer's feelings and recommend to the government that the project site be changed.
3. Hold a meeting with farmers to discuss a better compensation package, rehabilitation and job opportunities in the project to win their trust.
4. Issue legal notices to the protesting farmers and threaten them with legal action.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Hold a meeting with farmers to discuss a better compensation package, rehabilitation and job opportunities in the project to win their trust. Graded question, no negative marking. Marks for each option: (1) 1, (2) 1.5, (3) 2.5, (4) 0.श्रेणीबद्ध प्रश्न, कोई नेगेटिव मार्किंग नहीं। हर विकल्प के अंक: (1) 1, (2) 1.5, (3) 2.5, (4) 0।
Best (2.5 marks): meet the farmers and discuss better compensation, rehabilitation and jobs in the project (3). This addresses their real worry, the loss of livelihood, while letting the public project go ahead with consent. Recommending a new site (2) respects the farmers but sacrifices the project (1.5). Using police force (1) is coercive (1). Threatening farmers with legal notices (4) is the most hostile and earns 0.

Maharashtra Civil Services Gazetted Combined Preliminary Examination 2026, Paper 2 (CSAT)

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