UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2019, General Studies Paper I

Series A. Questions and answers from the official UPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक UPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

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All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar? 1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection. 2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Under the Mughals a jagir was an assignment of revenue given to a mansabdar in place of a cash salary for military and administrative service, not specifically for judicial and police duties, so statement 1 is wrong. Jagirs were regularly transferred and were not hereditary, while zamindari rights were usually hereditary, so statement 2 reverses the facts.
With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
2. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
3. It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
4. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
A central aim of land reforms was to take surplus land above the ceiling and redistribute it to the landless and small cultivators. Ceiling laws allowed exemptions, for example for plantations and certain categories of land, and the reforms did not make cash crops the predominant form of cultivation.
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
1. International Monetary Fund
2. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. World Economic Forum
4. World Bank
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) World Economic Forum
The Global Competitiveness Report is brought out by the World Economic Forum, the Geneva-based foundation that also organises the annual Davos meeting. The IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook, and UNCTAD and the World Bank publish other reports.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813' : 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China. 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company. 3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Charter Act of 1813 ended the Company's monopoly over Indian trade, keeping only its monopoly of the tea trade and trade with China, and it explicitly asserted the sovereignty of the Crown over the Company's Indian territories. The Company continued to collect and manage Indian revenues, so statement 3 is incorrect.
With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements : 1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries. 2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Swadeshi Movement that followed the partition of Bengal in 1905 encouraged the use of Indian goods and revived handloom, artisan crafts and indigenous industries. The National Council of Education was set up in 1906 as part of the same movement to promote national education, so both statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
Consider the following pairs : Movement/Organization : Leader 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi 2. All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati 3. Self-Respect Movement : E. V. Ramaswami Naicker Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League in 1932, later renamed the Harijan Sevak Sangh. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the first president of the All India Kisan Sabha formed in 1936, and E. V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) led the Self-Respect Movement, so all three pairs are correct.
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
1. Chanhudaro
2. Kot Diji
3. Sohgaura
4. Desalpur
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Sohgaura
Sohgaura in Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh is known for a Mauryan-period copper plate inscription, not for Harappan remains. Chanhudaro and Kot Diji in Sindh and Desalpur in Kutch, Gujarat are Harappan sites.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Harappan (Indus Valley) Civilisation
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
1. Kanganahalli
2. Sanchi
3. Shahbazgarhi
4. Sohgaura
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Kanganahalli
At Kanganahalli near Sannati in Karnataka, a relief panel shows a king with his queens and carries the label 'Ranyo Ashoka', giving a rare portrait of Ashoka identified by name. Shahbazgarhi has rock edicts but no such portrait, and Sanchi and Sohgaura do not have this inscription.
Consider the following : 1. Deification of the Buddha 2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas 3. Image worship and rituals Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Mahayana Buddhism treated the Buddha as a divine being, held up the Bodhisattva ideal of seeking enlightenment to help all beings, and encouraged image worship and rituals. All three are therefore Mahayana features.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
2. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
3. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
4. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
Vishti was unpaid forced labour that subjects owed to the king or state, so it was treated as a source of income for the State, a kind of tax paid in labour. Inscriptions show it was practised in central India and Kathiawar, and it carried no weekly wages.
Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
1. Chalukya
2. Chandela
3. Rashtrakuta
4. Vijayanagara
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Vijayanagara
Kalyana mandapas, ornate pillared halls used for the ceremonial marriage of the deity, are a hallmark of Vijayanagara temple architecture, as at Hampi and Vellore. They were not a characteristic feature of Chalukya, Chandela or Rashtrakuta temples.
Consider the following statements : 1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'. 2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution. 3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
Under the Delhi Sultanate the official in charge of revenue collection was called the Amil, so statement 1 is correct. The iqta system was brought by the Turkish rulers from West Asia and was not an ancient Indian institution, and the post of Mir Bakshi belongs to the Mughal administration, not the Khaljis.
Consider the following statements : 1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar. 2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Nimbarka, the Vaishnava philosopher, is generally placed around the 12th or 13th century, long before Akbar's 16th-century reign. Kabir lived in the 15th century, while Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi lived from 1564 to 1624, so Sirhindi could not have influenced Kabir.
With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements : 1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'. 2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War. 3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1 and 3 only
Gandhi campaigned against indentured emigration, which was ended around 1917, and during the Civil Disobedience Movement that began with the breaking of the Salt Law the government declared the Congress an unlawful body. Statement 2 is wrong because at the Delhi War Conference of 1918 Gandhi actually supported the resolution on recruiting Indians for the war.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs : Person : Position held 1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation 2. K. C. Neogy : Member, The Constituent Assembly 3. P. C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Tej Bahadur Sapru was a leading Liberal and served as president of the All India Liberal Federation. K. C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly from West Bengal, and P. C. Joshi was the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India, so all three pairs are correct.
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
1. Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
2. Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
3. Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
4. Tansen invented many Ragas.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
The title 'Tansen' was not given by Akbar; it is traditionally said to have been conferred by Raja Vikramajit of Gwalior, before Tansen joined Akbar's court, where he received the title 'Mian'. Tansen did compose dhrupads on Hindu deities and songs praising his patrons, and ragas such as Miyan ki Todi and Darbari Kanada are credited to him.
Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
1. Humayun
2. Akbar
3. Jahangir
4. Shah Jahan
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Jahangir
Under Jahangir, Mughal painting moved away from large illustrated manuscripts, which had dominated Akbar's studio, towards albums (muraqqa) and individual portraits and natural studies. Painters such as Abul Hasan and Mansur worked in this new style.
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
1. Manas National Park
2. Namdapha National Park
3. Neora Valley National Park
4. Valley of Flowers National Park
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
The Valley of Flowers National Park in Uttarakhand lies at high altitude, roughly 3,200 to 6,700 metres, entirely in the temperate alpine zone. Manas, Namdapha and Neora Valley extend down into tropical or subtropical forests at lower elevations.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Parks of India
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
1. Department of Science and Technology
2. Ministry of Labour and Employment
3. NITI Aayog
4. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) NITI Aayog
The Atal Innovation Mission was set up in 2016 under NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship, for example through Atal Tinkering Labs and Atal Incubation Centres.
On 21st June, the Sun
1. does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
2. does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
3. shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
4. shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
On 21 June, the summer solstice of the Northern Hemisphere, the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer and the region north of the Arctic Circle gets 24 hours of daylight, so the Sun does not set there. At the same time the Antarctic Circle has continuous night, and the Sun is not overhead at the Equator or the Tropic of Capricorn.
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?
1. Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
2. Tobacco, cotton and rubber
3. Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
4. Rubber, coffee and wheat
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
Tobacco, cocoa and rubber are all native to the Americas and were carried to Europe, Asia and Africa after Columbus. Coffee comes from Ethiopia, sugarcane from South and Southeast Asia, and wheat from West Asia, and cotton was domesticated independently in the Old World as well, so the other groups do not fit.
Consider the following statements : 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. 2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
The Asiatic lion survives in the wild only in and around Gir in Gujarat, so statement 1 is correct. The double-humped Bactrian camel is native to Central Asia (Mongolia, China), with only a small population in Ladakh, and the one-horned rhinoceros is also found in Nepal, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
Consider the following pairs : Famous place : River 1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga 2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery 3. Hampi : Malaprabha Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only
Pandharpur stands on the Bhima, which is called the Chandrabhaga there, and Tiruchirappalli lies on the Cauvery. Hampi lies on the Tungabhadra, not the Malaprabha, so pair 3 is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources
In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
1. poverty rates vary from State to State
2. price levels vary from State to State
3. Gross State Product varies from State to State
4. quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) price levels vary from State to State
Official poverty lines are the money needed to buy a fixed basket of goods and services, and since prices differ across States the line is set separately for each State. A higher price level means a higher poverty line; poverty rates are the outcome of the line, not the reason for it.
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
1. Creating the artificial rains in some regions
2. Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
3. Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
4. Reducing the global warming
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Reducing the global warming
Both are proposed geoengineering methods against global warming. Sulphate aerosols in the stratosphere reflect sunlight back to space, and thinning cirrus clouds lets more long-wave heat escape from the Earth.
In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?
1. Extraction of rare earth elements
2. Natural gas extraction technologies
3. Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
4. Waste-to-energy technologies
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Pyrolysis heats waste without oxygen, and plasma gasification uses very high-temperature plasma to break waste into syngas. Both are technologies for converting waste, such as municipal solid waste, into energy.
Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
1. Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
2. Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
3. Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
4. Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve at the southern tip of the Western Ghats, spread over Kerala and Tamil Nadu, includes the Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney sanctuaries and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve. Mudumalai, Wayanad and Silent Valley belong to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, and the other options list areas in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Biosphere Reserves of India
Consider the following statements : 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Adult green sea turtles feed mainly on seagrass and algae, and many fish such as parrotfish and some carps are herbivores. Dugongs and manatees are herbivorous marine mammals, and several snakes such as many vipers and boas give birth to live young, so all four statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
Consider the following pairs : Wildlife : Naturally found in 1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River 3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3 only
The blue-finned mahseer is found in the Cauvery river system, and the rusty-spotted cat occurs in forests of peninsular India including the Eastern Ghats. The Irrawaddy dolphin in India is found in coastal waters and lagoons such as Chilika Lake, not in the Chambal, which is known for the Gangetic river dolphin.
Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?
1. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
2. They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
3. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
4. They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
Microbeads are tiny plastic particles used in products such as face scrubs and toothpaste that pass through sewage treatment and reach rivers and seas. There they persist, absorb toxins and are eaten by fish and other marine life, which is why they are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
1. anti-malarial drug
2. biodiesel
3. pulp for paper industry
4. textile fibre
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) textile fibre
The Himalayan nettle (allo) yields strong fibres from its stem bark that are spun and woven into cloth in Uttarakhand and Nepal. It has drawn attention as a sustainable natural textile fibre.
For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Remote sensing data are used to estimate vegetation chlorophyll through indices such as NDVI and to measure land surface temperature with thermal sensors. Satellite data on paddy area, flooding and atmospheric methane are also used to estimate greenhouse gas emissions from rice fields, so all three apply.
Consider the following States : 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
1. 2-3-1-4
2. 2-3-4-1
3. 3-2-4-1
4. 3-2-1-4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 3-2-4-1
According to the India State of Forest Report of that period, Maharashtra had roughly 16 percent of its area under forest, Madhya Pradesh about 25 percent, Odisha about 33 percent and Chhattisgarh about 41 percent. This gives the ascending order Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh.
Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Methane hydrate is methane trapped in ice that is stable only at low temperature and high pressure, so it occurs in Arctic permafrost and in seafloor sediments, and warming can destabilise it and release methane. In the atmosphere methane lasts about a decade before it is oxidised to carbon dioxide and water, so all three statements are correct.
Consider the following : 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Burning crop residue releases carbon monoxide, methane and sulphur dioxide along with particulate matter. It also emits nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds that produce ozone in the lower atmosphere, which is why ozone is counted among the pollutants linked to residue burning.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
Consider the following pairs : Sea : Bordering country 1. Adriatic Sea : Albania 2. Black Sea : Croatia 3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan 4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco 5. Red Sea : Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Albania borders the Adriatic Sea, Kazakhstan borders the Caspian Sea and Morocco has a Mediterranean coast. Croatia lies on the Adriatic, not the Black Sea, and Syria has a Mediterranean coast but does not touch the Red Sea.
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
1. China
2. India
3. Myanmar
4. Vietnam
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) India
India has been the world's largest rice exporter since about 2012, shipping both basmati and non-basmati rice, ahead of Thailand and Vietnam. China is a major producer but also a large importer of rice.
Consider the following pairs : Glacier : River 1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna 2. Bara Shigri : Chenab 3. Milam : Mandakini 4. Siachen : Nubra 5. Zemu : Manas Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2 and 5
4. 3 and 5
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1, 2 and 4
The Bandarpunch massif feeds the Yamuna, the Bara Shigri glacier in Lahaul drains into the Chandra, a headstream of the Chenab, and the Siachen glacier is the source of the Nubra. The Milam glacier feeds the Goriganga, not the Mandakini, and the Zemu glacier in Sikkim feeds the Teesta, not the Manas.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
1. pesticides in agriculture
2. preservatives in processed foods
3. fruit-ripening agents
4. moisturising agents in cosmetics
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) pesticides in agriculture
Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos are highly toxic organophosphate and carbamate pesticides used on crops. Their effects on farm workers, birds and food residues have led to calls for bans, which is why their use is viewed with concern.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
Consider the following statements : 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention. 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 3 only
The Ramsar Convention asks members to designate wetlands of international importance and promote wise use, but it does not oblige India to protect every wetland in its territory. The 2010 Rules were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, rather than on Ramsar recommendations, and they cover the wetland along with its drainage or catchment area as determined by the authority, so only statement 3 is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
Consider the following statements : 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Fertilised agricultural soils emit nitrogen oxides, including nitrous oxide, through microbial nitrification and denitrification. Cattle dung and urine release ammonia, and poultry litter releases ammonia and other reactive nitrogen compounds, so all three statements are correct.
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
1. Recently discovered uranium deposits
2. Tropical rain forests
3. Underground cave systems
4. Water reservoirs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Water reservoirs
Aliyar in Tamil Nadu, Isapur in Maharashtra and Kangsabati in West Bengal are all dams with water reservoirs used for irrigation.
In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements : 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
H-CNG is CNG blended with about 18 to 20 percent hydrogen by volume, and it lowers carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. It reduces carbon monoxide emissions but does not eliminate them, and since hydrogen is costly to produce, H-CNG is not cheaper than CNG.
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
1. Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.
2. Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
3. The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
4. Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
Dew forms when the ground cools sharply at night by losing heat as long-wave radiation, chilling the air next to it below its dew point. On a cloudy night the clouds send this radiation back to the surface, so the ground stays warmer and dew does not form.
Consider the following statements : 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
Article 329A, which put disputes over the election of the Prime Minister beyond the courts, was inserted by the 39th Amendment in 1975 and was removed by the 44th Amendment, so statement 1 is wrong. In 2015 the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment, which created the National Judicial Appointments Commission, for violating the independence of the judiciary.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
Consider the following statements : 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2
2. 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 3 and 4 only
Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 the Speaker or Chairman may admit or refuse to admit a removal motion, so statement 1 is wrong, and the Constitution does not define 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity'. The Act lays down the procedure, and the motion must be passed in each House by a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting, so statements 3 and 4 are correct.
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
3. Indira Gandhi
4. Morarji Desai
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act of 1951, when Jawaharlal Nehru was Prime Minister. It was meant to shield land reform laws from challenge in the courts.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
Consider the following statements : 1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. 2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. 3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
Coal mines were nationalised in 1971 to 1973 when Indira Gandhi was Prime Minister. Since 2014 coal blocks have been allocated through auctions, not lotteries, and India still imports large amounts of coal, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists offices whose holders are not disqualified from being members of Parliament, and the official key accepts that it had been amended five times. The term 'office of profit' is not defined in the Constitution and has been interpreted by the courts, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
1. Third Schedule
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Ninth Schedule
4. Twelfth Schedule
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Fifth Schedule
The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and allows the Governor to make regulations restricting the transfer of tribal land. In the Samatha case (1997) the Supreme Court relied on it to hold that leasing tribal land in Scheduled Areas to private mining companies was void.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India : 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 2 and 4
There are 75 notified PVTGs, not 95, living in 18 States and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are identified by criteria such as pre-agricultural technology, very low literacy, a subsistence economy and a stagnant or declining population, and the Irular of Tamil Nadu and the Konda Reddi of Andhra Pradesh are on the list.
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
1. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
2. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
3. In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
4. State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
Article 142 lets the Supreme Court pass any decree or order needed to do complete justice in a case before it. If ordinary laws cannot limit this power, it means the Supreme Court is not constrained by laws made by Parliament when exercising it; the other options have nothing to do with Article 142.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements : 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year. 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
Under Article 176 the Governor addresses the Legislature at the start of the first session after each general election and at the start of the first session of each year. The official key also accepts statement 2: where a State Legislature has no rule of its own on a matter, the practice of the Lok Sabha is generally followed.
Consider the following statements : 1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'. 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. 3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. 4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2 and 4 only
UNCAC is the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument, and UNODC serves as the guardian of both UNCAC and UNTOC, helping states implement them. The Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants supplements UNTOC, not UNCAC, and the chapter on asset recovery is a highlight of UNCAC, not UNTOC, so statements 1 and 3 are wrong.
Consider the following statements : 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas. 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 lists bamboo as minor forest produce and gives forest dwellers the right of ownership, collection and disposal of minor forest produce. The 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act removed bamboo grown in non-forest areas from the definition of 'tree'; it did not give a right to fell bamboo growing in forest areas.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?
1. Article 19
2. Article 21
3. Article 25
4. Article 29
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Article 21
The Supreme Court, for example in the Hadiya case (2018), held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board. 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 3 only
Section 3(j) of the Patents Act, 1970 excludes plants, seeds, varieties and essentially biological processes for producing plants from patents, so plant varieties cannot be patented (they are protected under a separate 2001 Act) and statement 1 is wrong. At the time of the exam an Intellectual Property Appellate Board did exist, so statement 2 was also wrong.
Consider the following statements : The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to 1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought 2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 expressly empowers the Centre to lay down standards for the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources. The Act does not contain a provision on stating requirements of public participation, so per the key only statement 2 is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
2. The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
3. The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
4. It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
The 2016 Rules lay down detailed criteria for selecting sites for landfills and waste processing facilities. Generators must segregate waste into three streams (biodegradable, non-biodegradable and domestic hazardous), the Rules extend beyond urban local bodies to areas such as census towns, villages and special economic zones, and there is no ban on moving waste between districts.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
Consider the following statements : As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers 2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
The 2018 amendment introduced fixed-term employment, under which a worker's contract simply ends on expiry, making it easier for firms to reduce staff without retrenchment procedures. The rules also state that no notice of termination is needed for a temporary workman, whether on a fixed term or not, so both statements are correct.
The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
1. Integrated Rural Development Programme
2. Lead Bank Scheme
3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
4. National Skill Development Mission
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Lead Bank Scheme
The Service Area Approach, introduced by the RBI in 1989, assigned each rural and semi-urban bank branch a group of villages for which it was responsible for credit planning. It operated within the framework of the Lead Bank Scheme.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools
With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements : 1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country. 2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. 3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 3 only
Ordinary sand is notified as a minor mineral under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. Under Section 15 of that Act the State Governments both grant leases and make rules for minor minerals, and under Section 23C they can frame rules to prevent illegal mining, so statement 2 is wrong.
Consider the following statements : 1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities. 2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Most of India's external debt is owed by the non-government sector, such as commercial borrowings and NRI deposits, while sovereign debt is a smaller share. Although the US dollar has the largest share, part of the debt is in rupees, yen, SDR and euro, so neither statement is correct.
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
1. Advances
2. Deposits
3. Investments
4. Money at call and short notice
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Deposits
Deposits are money the bank owes to its customers, so they are liabilities on its balance sheet. Advances (loans), investments and money at call and short notice are all assets of the bank.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? 1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector 2. Increasing the government expenditure 3. Remittances from Indians abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1 and 3 only
A currency crisis is more likely when foreign exchange is scarce, so steady inflows such as IT export earnings and remittances from Indians abroad add to reserves and reduce that risk. Higher government spending can widen the fiscal and current account deficits and does not by itself lower the risk.
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
1. First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. Rajamannar Committee (1969)
3. Sarkaria Commission (1983)
4. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations recommended that the Governor be an eminent person from outside the State, a detached figure without intense political links, who had not taken part in active politics in the recent past.
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
1. Certificate of Deposit
2. Commercial Paper
3. Promissory Note
4. Participatory Note
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Participatory Note
Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are offshore derivative instruments issued by SEBI-registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors, giving them exposure to Indian securities without registering with SEBI. Certificates of deposit and commercial paper are money market instruments of banks and companies.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Consider the following statements : 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels. 2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 sets up a National Authority and State Authorities (CAMPA) to manage the funds. The Act does not make people's participation, for example through gram sabhas, mandatory in these afforestation programmes, so statement 2 is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 and 2
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 3, 4 and 5
4. 2 and 5
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2
Independent regulators are accountable to Parliament, which reviews them through its Department Related Standing Committees and through ad hoc committees it sets up. The Finance Commission, the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission and NITI Aayog do not have this review role.
With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries. 2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power. 3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Second Plan, based on the Mahalanobis model, pushed import substitution in basic and capital goods industries. The Fourth Plan aimed to correct the earlier rise in concentration of wealth and economic power, the period of bank nationalisation and the MRTP Act; the official key treats statement 3 on the Fifth Plan as incorrect.
With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements : 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
By 2019 the Beijing-based AIIB had more than 80 approved members. China is its largest shareholder, with India second, and many members such as the United Kingdom, Germany and France are from outside Asia, so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
1. To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
2. To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
3. To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of ₹ 50 crore or more
4. To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
The Inter-Creditor Agreement of 2018, part of the 'Project Sashakt' plan, binds lenders in a consortium to a common resolution plan led by the lead bank. Its aim was faster resolution of stressed loans of 50 crore rupees or more given under consortium lending.
The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
1. Banks Board Bureau
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Union Ministry of Finance
4. Management of concerned bank
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Banks Board Bureau
The Banks Board Bureau, set up in 2016, selects and recommends heads and whole-time directors of public sector banks and financial institutions. The government then makes the appointment on its recommendation.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Consider the following statements : 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. 2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas. 3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
PNGRB was set up under a 2006 Act, long after regulators such as SEBI and TRAI, so it was not the first regulatory body. Its functions include promoting competitive markets in gas, and under its Act appeals against its decisions go to the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity.
With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? 1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. 2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
LTE is marketed as 4G, not 3G, and VoLTE is a way of carrying voice calls as data packets over the same 4G LTE network. LTE carries data, and VoLTE is not voice-only since the network carries both, so neither statement is correct.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily. 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 3 only
The 2017 amendment raised paid maternity leave to 26 weeks, of which not more than 8 weeks can be taken before delivery, and allows four crèche visits a day, so statements 1 and 2 are wrong. A woman who already has two or more children is entitled to only 12 weeks, so statement 3 is correct.
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?
1. Maintenance of law and order
2. Paying taxes
3. Registering property
4. Dealing with construction permits
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Maintenance of law and order
The Ease of Doing Business index covered areas such as starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts and resolving insolvency. Maintenance of law and order was not one of them.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
1. The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
2. The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
3. The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
4. The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 made extended producer responsibility a central feature, requiring producers of electrical and electronic goods to take responsibility for collecting and channelling their end-of-life products for recycling. The other rules listed did not introduce EPR in this way.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
1. transportation cost only
2. interest cost only
3. procurement incidentals and distribution cost
4. procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
The economic cost of food grains to the FCI has three parts: the procurement price (MSP plus any bonus), procurement incidentals such as mandi charges and gunny bags, and the cost of distribution such as freight and handling. Options covering only transport or interest leave out major parts.
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
1. The proportion of literates in the population
2. The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
3. The size of population in the working age group
4. The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Social capital refers to the networks, norms, mutual trust and cooperation in a society that help people work together. Literacy is part of human capital, buildings and machines are physical capital, and the working-age population is a demographic feature.
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements : 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
High Courts can examine and strike down central laws that violate the Constitution under their power of judicial review. Constitutional amendments can also be reviewed by the Supreme Court and struck down if they violate the basic structure, as held in Kesavananda Bharati, so neither statement is correct.
Consider the following statements : 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
PPP exchange rates are worked out by comparing what the same basket of goods and services costs in different countries. In PPP terms India is the third largest economy in the world, after China and the United States, not the sixth.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements : 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest. 2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds. 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane. 4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 3 only
Rice occupies the largest area among Kharif crops, and cotton covers roughly 12 million hectares, far more than sugarcane at about 5 million hectares. Kharif oilseeds such as soybean and groundnut cover much more area than jowar, and sugarcane area has fluctuated rather than declined steadily.
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
1. Spices
2. Fresh fruits
3. Pulses
4. Vegetable oils
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Vegetable oils
Edible vegetable oils such as palm, soybean and sunflower oil are India's largest agricultural import by value, as domestic oilseed output falls well short of demand. Pulses, fruits and spices are imported in much smaller value.
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
1. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. Absence of restraint
3. Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
In the positive sense used in political theory, liberty means having the conditions and opportunity to develop one's personality fully. Mere absence of restraint or freedom to do whatever one likes would allow harm to others, and protection from tyranny is only one part of liberty.
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
1. Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
2. Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
3. Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
4. Following an expansionary monetary policy
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
An expansionary monetary policy lowers interest rates and increases money supply, which tends to push capital out and weaken the rupee further. Curbing non-essential imports, promoting exports, encouraging masala bonds and easing external commercial borrowing all bring in or save foreign exchange and support the rupee.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools
Consider the following statements : The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that 1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India 2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises 3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
The RBI's April 2018 directive required all payment system providers to store the entire data relating to their payment systems only in India. It did not require public sector ownership, and the system audit report was to be submitted to the RBI, not the CAG.
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. The European Union
4. The United States of America
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) The European Union
The General Data Protection Regulation is a European Union law adopted in April 2016 that became enforceable on 25 May 2018. It governs how personal data of people in the EU is collected and processed.
Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?
1. Japan
2. Russia
3. The United Kingdom
4. The United States of America
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Russia
India and Russia signed this Action Plan in October 2018 during the annual summit in New Delhi. It covers cooperation such as new nuclear power units and work in third countries.
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
1. Increase in the cash reserve ratio
2. Increase in the banking habit of the population
3. Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
4. Increase in the population of the country
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
When more people keep their money in banks, less cash leaks out of the banking system and banks can lend more, so the money multiplier rises. Higher CRR or SLR locks up more of banks' funds and reduces the multiplier, while population size by itself does not determine it.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements : 1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out. 2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings. 3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC. 4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 4 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 3 and 4
Augmented reality overlays computer-generated images on the real world, often through a phone camera, so the user stays present in the physical world. Virtual reality shuts out the real world and immerses the user in a simulated one. Statements 1 and 2 swap these descriptions, so only 3 and 4 are correct.
The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
1. fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
2. an early human species
3. a cave system found in North-East India
4. a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) an early human species
Denisovans are an extinct species or group of archaic humans, first identified from a finger bone found in Denisova Cave in Siberia. They interbred with modern humans, and traces of their DNA survive in some present-day populations.
With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
1. Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
2. Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
3. A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
4. Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
Scientists can synthesise functional DNA in the laboratory, copy DNA outside a living cell using techniques such as PCR, and grow plant and animal cells that divide in culture dishes. The official key marks the claim about building functional chromosomes from DNA segments of different species as the statement that is not correct.
Consider the following statements : A digital signature is 1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet 3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 3 only
A digital signature is a cryptographic way of signing an electronic document that authenticates the signer and shows that the content has not been altered after signing. Identifying the issuing certifying authority and serving as proof of identity to access servers are functions of a digital certificate, not the signature itself.
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? 1. Location identification of a person 2. Sleep monitoring of a person 3. Assisting the hearing impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Wearables such as smartwatches and fitness bands use GPS to track a person's location and sensors to monitor sleep, and hearing aids are themselves wearable devices that assist people with hearing impairment. So all three tasks are performed by wearable devices.
'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why? 1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. 2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. 3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. 4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1 and 4 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1, 2 and 4
RNA interference uses small RNA molecules to switch off specific genes, which makes it useful for gene-silencing therapies, for experimental cancer treatments that silence cancer-promoting genes, and for crops that resist viruses by silencing viral genes. It is not a method for hormone replacement therapy, which supplies hormones rather than silencing genes.
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
1. 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
2. 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
3. Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.
4. It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
Observatories such as LIGO and Virgo detected gravitational waves, ripples in space-time first predicted by Einstein, produced when pairs of massive black holes merged far away. The observation had nothing to do with the Higgs boson or with confirming wormholes.
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? 1. Genetic predisposition of some people 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
Drug resistance develops in microbes when antibiotics are misused, for example through wrong doses or incomplete courses, and when antibiotics are used widely in livestock farming. A person's genetic make-up or having chronic diseases does not by itself make the microbes resistant.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens
What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
1. A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
2. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
3. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
4. A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
Cas9 is an enzyme that, guided by a short RNA, cuts DNA at a chosen site, so it works like molecular scissors in the CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing method.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
1. Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
2. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
3. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
4. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
An effective vaccine against Hepatitis B has existed since the 1980s, while there is no vaccine for Hepatitis C, so statement (b) has it the wrong way round. Hepatitis B spreads like HIV through blood, sex and from mother to child, far more people carry Hepatitis B and C than HIV, and many infections stay silent for years.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens

UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2019, General Studies Paper I

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