UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2025, General Studies Paper I

Series A. Questions and answers from the official UPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक UPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real UPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two
Under SEBI's Alternative Investment Funds Regulations, 2012, privately pooled vehicles such as venture capital funds and hedge funds are registered as AIFs. Bonds and listed stocks are conventional securities, not AIFs, so only two of the four qualify.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I and II only
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III, IV and V
4. I, II and V
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I and II only
The RBI earns mainly from interest on its holdings of government securities and from its foreign exchange operations and foreign assets. It does not manage pension funds or lend to private companies, and printing and distributing notes is a cost for the RBI rather than a source of income.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization : Some of its functions : It works under I. Directorate of Enforcement : Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 : Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence : Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 : Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management : Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders : Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one
The official key gives only one correctly matched row. Row I is wrong because the Directorate of Enforcement works under the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance, not under the Ministry of Home Affairs, while the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence in row II does enforce the Customs Act under the Department of Revenue.
Consider the following statements: I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) II only
The BRSR requirement comes from SEBI, the securities market regulator, and applies to the top listed companies by market capitalisation, not from the RBI, so statement I is wrong. The report covers environmental, social and governance disclosures, which are largely non-financial, so statement II is correct.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Agricultural income that is exempt under the Income-tax Act covers income from land used for agriculture; income from allied activities such as poultry or wool rearing is not automatically exempt, so Statement I is wrong. Statement II is correct because the Act's definition of a capital asset excludes rural agricultural land.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
Consider the following statements: I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I and III only
India joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership in 2023, and the 2023 amendment to the MMDR Act let the Centre exclusively auction concessions for specified critical minerals. Statement II is wrong: India depends heavily on imports for many of the 30 critical minerals it identified, such as lithium and cobalt.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Bondholders lend money to a company and are entitled to fixed payments, while stockholders own the company and get only what is left after creditors are paid. Because lenders are paid first, including in a liquidation, both Statements II and III are correct and together explain why bondholders carry lower risk than stockholders.
Consider the following statements: I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I and II only
India's exchanges account for a very large share of the equity options contracts traded worldwide, and in early 2024 India's stock market capitalisation overtook Hong Kong's. Statement III is wrong because SEBI regulates the securities market, has warned retail investors about losses in futures and options, and acts against unregistered investment advisers.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
A circular economy keeps materials in use through reuse, repair and recycling, so it needs fewer virgin raw materials and creates less waste. Both effects cut the energy used in extraction, processing and disposal, which is why both statements explain the lower greenhouse gas emissions in Statement I.
Consider the following statements: I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I and II only
Capital receipts either create a liability (borrowings) or reduce assets (disinvestment, recovery of loans), so statements I and II are correct. Interest received on loans given by the Government is a non-debt revenue receipt and creates no liability, so statement III is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy: I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both I and II
Ram Mohan Roy respected the Upanishads and Vedanta and translated them, so he valued the philosophical traditions of the East. At the same time he championed modern Western education, rational thought, and the equal dignity of women, as seen in his campaign against sati, so both statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social and Religious Reform Movements
Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only three
The Non-Cooperation programme of 1920 included boycott of courts and foreign cloth, strict non-violence, and setting up panchayats to settle disputes in place of British courts. It asked people to surrender, not retain, their titles and honours, so statement III is wrong and three items fit.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was
1. a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
2. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
3. a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
4. a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
The araghatta was a water-lifting wheel with a chain or ring of pots attached around it, which filled at the bottom and emptied at the top, a forerunner of the Persian wheel. A leather bag pulled over a pulley describes a different device (the charasa or mot), which is the main trap.
Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?
1. Mahendravarman I
2. Simhavishnu
3. Narasimhavarman I
4. Simhavarman
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Mahendravarman I
The Pallava king Mahendravarman I wrote the Sanskrit farce Mattavilasa Prahasana and took titles such as Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta and Gunabhara. Narasimhavarman I, his son, is better known by the title Mamalla, and Simhavishnu was his father.
Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
1. Samudragupta
2. Chandragupta II
3. Kumaragupta I
4. Skandagupta
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Chandragupta II
Faxian travelled in India in the early fifth century CE, roughly 399 to 412, which falls in the reign of the Gupta king Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya). Samudragupta ruled earlier, and Kumaragupta I and Skandagupta ruled after him.
Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
1. Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
2. Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
3. Rajendra I (Chola)
4. Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)
The Chola king Rajendra I sent a naval expedition around 1025 CE that raided ports of the Srivijaya kingdom in Sumatra and the Malay Peninsula. The other rulers were land-based Deccan or south Indian kings with no such overseas campaign.
With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region : River flowing in the region I. Asmaka : Godavari II. Kamboja : Vipas III. Avanti : Mahanadi IV. Kosala : Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two
Asmaka lay on the Godavari in the Deccan and Kosala was watered by the Sarayu, so those two pairs are correct. Kamboja was in the far north-west beyond the Vipas (Beas), and Avanti was centred on Ujjain and the Narmada and Shipra region, not the Mahanadi.
The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
1. Delhi
2. Gwalior
3. Ujjain
4. Lahore
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Lahore
Vishnu Digambar Paluskar founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lahore in 1901 to teach Hindustani classical music to the public. He later moved his work to Bombay; Gwalior is linked to the gharana tradition, which is the likely trap.
Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the
1. village-level administration
2. district-level administration
3. provincial administration
4. level of the central administration
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) district-level administration
Ashoka's edicts mention the Pradeshika, Rajuka and Yukta as officers who toured and administered at the district level, handling revenue, justice and record-keeping. Provinces were under princes or governors, and villages under headmen, so the other levels do not fit.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement: I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both I and II
At the Nagpur session of 1920 the Congress changed its goal to attaining Swaraj by all legitimate and peaceful means. The programme was planned in stages, with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes held back for a later stage if Swaraj did not come within a year and repression continued, so both statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
1. Only three
2. Only four
3. Only five
4. All the six
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only four
Bulgaria (2004), Croatia (2009), North Macedonia (2020) and Sweden (2024) are NATO members, which makes four. Austria is a neutral state and Serbia follows a policy of military neutrality, so neither has joined.
Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. Only five
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only four
The Andes run along the western side of South America through Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile and Argentina, so four of the listed countries qualify. Brazil and Paraguay lie east of the range and do not contain Andean ranges.
Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonle Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) None
Lake Tanganyika lies entirely south of the equator in the East African Rift, Tonle Sap in Cambodia is well north of it, and Patos Lagoon is in southern Brazil far to the south. The equator crosses Lake Victoria, not Tanganyika, which is the common trap.
Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) I, II and III
India is the world's largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric, and more than 30 varieties are grown in the country. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are among the leading producing States, so all three statements are correct.
Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I and III only
2. I and II only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I, II and III
Matching ancient rock belts on the Brazil and West African coasts, gold in Ghana whose source rocks lie in the Brazil plateau, and Gondwana sediments with counterparts across six southern landmasses are all classic evidences cited for continental drift. Each points to the continents once lying side by side, so all three are correct.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
Dust concentration is higher in subtropical and temperate belts than in equatorial and polar regions, so Statement I is correct. The reason is that these belts have more, not less, dry winds that lift dust, so Statement II is wrong.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
In the northern winter, land cools much faster than the sea, so the air over the oceans stays warmer than over the continents. Isotherms therefore bend equatorward over the cold land and poleward over the warmer oceans, and Statement II explains Statement I.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
Chalk is porous and lets water soak through, which makes it permeable, so Statement II is correct and explains part of Statement I. Clay is actually highly porous, but its pores are so tiny that water cannot pass through easily, so it is impermeable; Statement III is therefore wrong.
Consider the following statements: I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and III only
2. I and II only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I, II and III
Without the natural greenhouse effect, the Earth's average surface temperature would be around minus 18 degrees Celsius instead of about 15 degrees Celsius. Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide absorb and trap outgoing long-wave radiation, which keeps the planet warm, so all three statements are correct.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both I and II
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission, launched in 2014, aims to develop and conserve indigenous bovine breeds in a scientific and holistic manner. Since most low-yielding indigenous animals are kept by small and marginal farmers and landless labourers, improving them directly helps the rural poor, so both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
Cement making does mix silica-bearing clay with limestone, and the limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated into lime during clinker production. Only the second process explains the high emissions, because calcination itself releases carbon dioxide; mixing clay with limestone does not.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, citing concern that cutting emissions from its health sector could hamper the expansion and resilience of health care, which matches Statement III. Statement II is wrong because the declaration is voluntary and non-binding.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements
Consider the following statements: Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
Studies show that melting polar ice redistributes mass towards the equator, which slightly slows the Earth's rotation and shifts its axis, so Statement III explains Statement I. Solar flares and coronal mass ejections do strike the upper atmosphere, but they do not change the Earth's rotation or axis.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Article 6 lets countries cooperate on their climate targets: Articles 6.2 and 6.4 set out carbon market mechanisms, and Article 6.8 covers non-market approaches. Because it covers both kinds of cooperation, it features heavily in climate negotiations, so both statements are correct and explain Statement I.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements
Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?
1. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
2. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
3. The New Development Bank (NDB)
4. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
The Asian Development Bank launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific in 2024 to attract investment into nature-based solutions. The AIIB, NDB and IBRD are other multilateral lenders that did not launch this hub.
With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I and II only
2. III only
3. I, II and III
4. None of the above statements is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I, II and III
Direct Air Capture pulls carbon dioxide straight from the air, which can then be stored underground for sequestration. The captured carbon dioxide can also be used as a feedstock, for example in plastics, in food and beverage processing, and with hydrogen to make synthetic aviation fuel, so all three statements are correct.
Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. I and III
3. II only
4. II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) II and III
The Gooty or peacock tarantula is a spider, an arachnid that preys on insects, not a crustacean, so statement I is wrong. It is known from a small patch of forest in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh and lives in tree holes, so statements II and III are correct.
Consider the following statements: I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/capita. II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I and III only
2. II only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) II and III only
India's per capita CO2 emissions are about 1.9 to 2 tonnes, far above 0.5 tonnes, so statement I is wrong. India is the second largest emitter from fuel combustion in the Asia-Pacific after China, and coal-based electricity and heat generation is its largest emitting sector.
Consider the following pairs: Plant : Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV. Mint : Annual shrub V. Papaya : Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. All the five
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only three
Cassava is a woody shrub, ginger is a herb whose aerial shoot is a pseudostem of leaf sheaths, and Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climbing vine, so three pairs match. Mint is a perennial herb rather than an annual shrub, and papaya is a soft-stemmed, tree-like plant rather than a woody shrub.
With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements: I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I and II
2. II only
3. I and III
4. None of the above statements is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) II only
Ocean phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria such as Prochlorococcus produce roughly half of the world's oxygen, which is more than rain forests contribute, so only statement II is correct. Even well-oxygenated water holds far less oxygen per litre than air, so statement III is reversed.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) All the three
An alternative powertrain is any drive system other than a conventional petrol or diesel internal combustion engine. Battery electric vehicles, hydrogen fuel cell vehicles and fuel cell-electric hybrids all qualify, so all three are counted.
With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) None
Fixed-wing UAVs need a runway or recovery system and cannot hover or land vertically the way multirotor drones do, so the word 'all' makes statements I and II wrong. Many UAVs run on fuel engines or hybrid or solar power rather than only batteries, so none of the statements is correct.
In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only three
Common lithium-ion cathodes such as NMC and NCA are made of lithium combined with nickel, cobalt and other metals, so three of the elements fit. Graphite is the usual anode material, which is the main trap.
Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) All the three
Cigarette filters are made of cellulose acetate, a plastic, most eyeglass lenses today are polycarbonate or other plastic polymers, and car tyres contain synthetic rubber and polymer fibres. All three therefore contain plastic, and tyre wear and cigarette butts are major sources of microplastic pollution.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two
Coal gasification turns coal into syngas, a mix of carbon monoxide and hydrogen, which can be converted into chemicals such as ethanol, and into ammonia for making urea, as planned at the Talcher fertiliser plant. The official key counts only two of the three substances.
What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
1. These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
2. These are explosives in military weapons
3. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
4. These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) These are explosives in military weapons
CL-20, HMX and LLM-105 are high-energy explosive compounds used in military munitions; HMX is a standard military high explosive and CL-20 is among the most powerful non-nuclear explosives. They are not refrigerants or primary propellant fuels.
Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I and III only
Majorana 1 is a quantum computing chip based on topological qubits, announced by Microsoft in February 2025, not by Amazon Web Services, so statement II is wrong. Deep learning, which uses multi-layer neural networks, is a subset of machine learning, so statements I and III are correct.
With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements: I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) I, II and III
Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-made proteins that copy natural antibodies and bind to one specific antigen, helping the immune system mark or neutralise a target. They are used against viral infections, and India obtained a monoclonal antibody for treating Nipah virus cases, so all three statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens
Consider the following statements: I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) None
Oceans hold enormous numbers of viruses, bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria, and many viruses take over or alter the host cell's transcription machinery to make copies of themselves. All three absolute statements are therefore false.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens
Consider the following statements: Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Activated carbon has a very large porous surface area that adsorbs heavy metals and other pollutants, which makes it effective for treating effluents. It can also be made cheaply from carbon-rich wastes such as coconut shells and agricultural residues, which makes it attractive, so both statements explain Statement I.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I and III only
An ordinance under Article 123 has the same force as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend a central law and can be made retrospective. It counts as 'law' under Article 13, so like any law it cannot take away or abridge Fundamental Rights, which makes statement II wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Consider the following pairs: State : Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) All the three
Itanagar is named after the Ita Fort, and Arunachal Pradesh has two national parks, Namdapha and Mouling. Nagaland was created in 1963 with the Thirteenth Constitutional Amendment Act providing for it, and Tripura moved from a Part C State to a Union Territory in 1956 and became a State in 1972, so all three pairs match.
With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one
The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 under Article 263 of the Constitution. The National Security Council was created by an executive decision in 1998, and Zonal Councils are statutory bodies under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, so only one is constitutional.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I only
Article 163 expressly refers to functions the Governor exercises in his or her discretion, unlike the President, so statement I is correct. Under Article 200 it is the Governor who reserves a State bill for the President; the President cannot call for a State bill on his or her own, so statement II is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India : Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) All the three
Separation of the judiciary from the executive is a Directive Principle in Article 50, valuing the heritage of our composite culture is a Fundamental Duty in Article 51A(f), and Article 24 is a Fundamental Right prohibiting employment of children below 14 in factories. All three pairs are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither I nor II
Under the Fifth Schedule the State's executive power continues to extend to Scheduled Areas; the Governor gets special powers to adapt laws and make regulations, and a Tribes Advisory Council advises. The Union can give directions to the State about administering these areas but does not take over their total administration, so neither statement is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Organization : Union Ministry I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) None
The National Automotive Board works under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, the Coir Board under the Ministry of MSME, and the National Centre for Trade Information under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The ministries have been shuffled in every pair, so none is correctly matched.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I and II only
The proviso to Article 368(2) requires ratification by half the States for changes to, among other things, any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule and the extent of the executive power of the Union and the States (Article 162). Conditions of the Governor's office under Article 158 are not on that list, so only I and II need State ratification.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) I, II and III
Article 361 protects the President and Governors from being answerable to courts for their official acts and bars criminal proceedings against them during their term. Article 194 gives members of a State Legislature immunity from court proceedings for anything said or any vote given in the House, so all three statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two
The PNGRB Act, 2006 covers downstream activities: refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum products and natural gas. Upstream production of crude oil and natural gas is expressly kept outside its scope, so only two activities are regulated by it.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) I, II and III
Revenue deficit is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts, 80,000 minus 60,000, which is 20,000 crores. Fiscal deficit equals the government's total borrowings, 10,000 crores, and primary deficit is fiscal deficit minus interest payments, 10,000 minus 6,000, which is 4,000 crores, so all three statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
1. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
2. India to Central Asia via China
3. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
4. India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
The INSTC, agreed by India, Iran and Russia in 2000, links Indian ports by sea to Iran and then by rail and road through Iran, the Caspian region and Central Asia to Russia and Europe. It does not pass through China, and the route to South-East Asia is a separate project.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
The United States is the world's largest ethanol producer, well ahead of Brazil, so Statement I is wrong. Statement II is correct: US ethanol is made mainly from corn, while Brazil relies mainly on sugarcane.
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report? I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both I and II
A wet-bulb temperature of 35 degrees Celsius is roughly the limit beyond which the body cannot cool itself by sweating, so survival of humans and animals is threatened. The official key also accepts the wider climate risks for peninsular India named in statement I, so both statements are taken as correct.
A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
1. ₹ 48,500 crores
2. ₹ 51,500 crores
3. ₹ 58,500 crores
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) ₹ 48,500 crores
Gross primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments, 50,000 minus 1,500, which is 48,500 crores. Non-debt capital receipts are already accounted for in calculating the fiscal deficit, so adding or subtracting them again is the trap.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I, III and IV
The 15th Finance Commission recommended 41 percent of the divisible pool for States, not 45 percent, so statement II is wrong. It did propose performance grants of 4,800 crore rupees for education outcomes, about 45,000 crore rupees as incentives for agricultural reforms, and it brought back tax effort as a criterion in the devolution formula.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I and III only
The IBRD, set up in 1944 to help rebuild Europe after the Second World War, now lends to and guarantees loans for middle-income and creditworthy poorer countries. It does not work single-handedly: it works alongside IDA and the other World Bank Group institutions, so statement II is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. I and II
3. I and III
4. III only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I only
RTGS settles each transaction in real time, while NEFT settles in half-hourly batches, so statement I is correct. The RBI does not allow banks to charge for inward RTGS or NEFT credits, and both systems have run round the clock on all days since 2020 and 2021, so statements II and III are wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools
Consider the following countries: I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. All the five
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only three
Through NPCI International partnerships, UPI can be used at merchants in the UAE, France and Singapore, among the countries listed. The official key counts three, which leaves out Germany and Bangladesh.
Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana': I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) I, II and III
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in 2024, aims to put rooftop solar on one crore households. Its capacity-building component, run by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, trains people in installing and servicing rooftop systems and aims to create more than three lakh skilled workers, so all three statements are correct.
"Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
1. the Champaran Satyagraha
2. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
3. attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
4. the launch of the Quit India Movement
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
During the Salt Satyagraha of 1930, when he set out to break the salt law at Dandi, Gandhiji declared that sedition had become his religion, openly defying British law. The other events are linked with different phases of his career, such as 'Do or Die' with Quit India in 1942.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
1. carnelian
2. clay
3. bronze
4. gold
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) bronze
The Dancing Girl from Mohenjo-daro is a small bronze figure made by the lost-wax casting technique. Harappans also made clay figurines and carnelian beads, which is why those options look plausible.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Harappan (Indus Valley) Civilisation
Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
1. C. R. Das
2. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
3. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
4. M. A. Jinnah
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
After the Chauri Chaura violence of February 1922, many accused were sentenced to death, and Madan Mohan Malaviya, with Krishna Kant Malaviya, defended them on appeal and saved most from the gallows. C. R. Das and Jinnah were prominent lawyers but were not the defence counsel in this case.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?
1. The Poona Pact
2. The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
3. Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
4. Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) The Poona Pact
After the Poona Pact of September 1932, which ended his fast against separate electorates for the depressed classes, Gandhiji founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh and the weekly Harijan and toured the country against untouchability. The other events came before or after and were not the trigger for this campaign.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) All the three
Papaya, pineapple and guava are all native to tropical America and reached India through the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries, along with crops such as chillies and tobacco. So all three were Portuguese introductions.
Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
1. All the five
2. Only four
3. Only three
4. Only two
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only four
Counting overseas territories, the United Kingdom, Denmark (with Greenland and the Faroe Islands), New Zealand (with its Pacific islands) and Australia (with its external territories) each span more than four time zones. Brazil uses exactly four, so it does not qualify.
Consider the following statements: I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I only
Anadyr and Nome lie close together on opposite sides of the International Date Line across the Bering Strait region, so their calendar dates differ at the same moment. Anadyr is west of the line and therefore a day ahead: when it is Monday in Anadyr it is still Sunday in Nome, which makes statement II the reverse of the truth.
Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?
1. 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3. Bhaskarrao Jadhav
4. Dinkarrao Javalkar
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker, known as Periyar, launched the Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu in 1925 to fight caste hierarchy and Brahminical dominance. Bhaskarrao Jadhav and Dinkarrao Javalkar were leaders of the non-Brahmin movement in Maharashtra, which is the trap.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social and Religious Reform Movements
Consider the following pairs: Country : Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) All the three
Botswana is one of the world's top diamond producers, Chile holds some of the largest lithium reserves in its salt flats, and Indonesia is the largest producer of nickel. All three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following pairs: Region : Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) None
Mallorca is a Spanish island in the Balearics, Normandy is a region of northern France, and Sardinia is an Italian island. The countries have been rotated in every pair, so none is correct.
Consider the following statements: Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Rare earths such as europium, terbium and yttrium are used as phosphors that glow in specific colours, which is why they are used in display screens and monitors. Their light-emitting (phosphorescent) property is the reason for this use, so Statement II explains Statement I.
Consider the following statements: I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I and II only
The National Rail Plan aims at a future-ready railway system by 2030, not 2028, and Kavach was developed indigenously by RDSO with Indian industry, not with Germany. Kavach does use RFID tags fixed on the track, so statement III is correct and statements I and II are the incorrect ones.
Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two
The official key counts two of these missions as supporting microgravity research. Axiom-4, which took Indian astronaut Shubhanshu Shukla to the International Space Station in 2025, carried a set of Indian microgravity experiments.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: ISRO Space Missions
With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs: Aircraft type : Description I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two
The Dornier-228 is used by the Navy and Coast Guard for maritime patrol and surveillance, and the C-17 Globemaster III is a heavy-lift military transport aircraft. The IL-76 is also a subsonic heavy transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat jet, so two pairs are correct.
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
1. silver iodide and potassium iodide
2. silver nitrate and potassium iodide
3. silver iodide and potassium nitrate
4. silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
Cloud seeding, proposed for example to clear Delhi's winter smog, disperses salts such as silver iodide and potassium iodide (with common salt) into suitable clouds so that ice crystals or droplets form around them and fall as rain. Silver nitrate and potassium nitrate are not the standard seeding agents.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I only
The Supreme Court has held that pardons under Article 72 can be reviewed on limited grounds such as mala fides, arbitrariness or ignoring relevant material. Under Article 74 the President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so statement II is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) I and III only
Article 94 keeps the Speaker in office after dissolution until just before the new House first meets, and allows removal by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members after fourteen days' notice. The Constitution does not require a Speaker to resign from his or her party; that is only a convention followed in some countries such as the UK.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither I nor II
Disqualification on grounds of defection under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Speaker or Chairman of the House, not by the President on ministerial advice. The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment in 1985, expressly uses and defines the term 'political party', so both statements are wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Under Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, State Governments make rules for granting concessions for minor minerals, so Statement I is wrong. Statement II is correct because the Act lets the Central Government declare which minerals are minor minerals.
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
1. The European Union
2. The World Bank
3. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
4. The Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) The European Union
The European Union adopted the Nature Restoration Law in 2024, setting binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems across member states. The World Bank, OECD and FAO are not legislative bodies and cannot enact such a law.
Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) I, II and III
Article 243B lets States with a population below 20 lakh skip the intermediate level, so it does not exist everywhere. The minimum age for panchayat membership is 21, and the State Finance Commission under Article 243I is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister, so all three statements are incorrect.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC: I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. I only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) I only
BIMSTEC has seven members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. It was founded by the Bangkok Declaration of 1997 with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand, joined soon after by Myanmar, while Nepal joined later, so statements II and III are wrong; the official key also treats statement IV as incorrect.
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. II and IV only
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I and III only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) II, III and IV
The Gandhi Peace Prize jury is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha, along with eminent persons. The President of India is not a member of the jury.
GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I, II and III
2. II and III only
3. I only
4. I and II only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) I and II only
GAGAN, built by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India, is a satellite-based augmentation system that corrects GPS signals to give better accuracy and integrity, which supports uniform, high-quality air traffic management. Its signals can also be used in railways, road transport, shipping and other sectors, so statement III is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: ISRO Space Missions
Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025: I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I only
France co-chaired the Paris AI Action Summit with India, and it followed the Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024) AI summits. The United States and the United Kingdom declined to sign the summit declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI, so statement II is wrong.
Consider the following pairs: I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) All the four
The UN General Assembly has designated 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust, 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer, 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism, and 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence. All four pairs are correct.
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and III
4. I only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I and II
Russia hosted the 16th BRICS Summit at Kazan in October 2024, and Indonesia joined as a full member in January 2025. The summit theme was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security', so swapping in 'Multiculturalism' makes statement III wrong.
Consider the following statements about Lokpal: I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. III only
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. None of the above statements is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) III only
Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, members and the Chairperson must be at least 45 years old, so statement III is correct. The Act covers public servants in India and abroad, allows a former Supreme Court judge or an eminent person (not only a Chief Justice) to be Chairperson, and lets the Lokpal inquire into a Prime Minister subject to safeguards.
Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup: I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) I only
The first Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi in January 2025, and India beat Nepal in both finals. The scores in statements II and III are swapped: the women won 78-40 and the men won 54-36, so only statement I is correct.
Consider the following statements: I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi. II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) II only
Gukesh became the youngest world chess champion in December 2024 by beating China's Ding Liren in the World Championship match; the Chess Olympiad is a team event, and he did not defeat Nepomniachtchi in such a final. Abhimanyu Mishra of the USA became the youngest Grandmaster ever in 2021, so only statement II is correct.

UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2025, General Studies Paper I

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

Menu

Explore

Language · भाषा