MPSC prelims CSAT reading comprehension: previous year questionsMPSC प्रीलिम्स CSAT पठन बोध: पिछले वर्षों के प्रश्न

58 questions from the prelims papers of 2022 to 2026, newest first. Read the question, try it, then open the answer: it comes from the official MPSC answer key, with a short explanation.2022 से 2026 तक के प्रीलिम्स पेपरों से 58 प्रश्न, नए पहले। प्रश्न पढ़िए, हल कीजिए, फिर उत्तर खोलिए: वह आधिकारिक MPSC उत्तर-कुंजी से है, साथ में छोटी व्याख्या।

MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 1प्रश्न 1
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
What was the main purpose of scientists behind the discovery of atomic energy ?
1. for diagnosis and treatment.
2. promoting the development of radar and submarines.
3. due to the limitation of minerals like coal and petrol new sources of energy have to be found.
4. creating devasting nuclear weapons to win the war.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) due to the limitation of minerals like coal and petrol new sources of energy have to be found.
The first paragraph says coal and petrol are limited and will fall short, so 'the scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy'. Medicine, radar, submarines and weapons are only listed later as uses, not as the purpose. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 2प्रश्न 2
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Who is known as father of atomic energy ?
1. Homi Bhabha
2. Vikram Sarabhai
3. Neil Bohr
4. Rutherford
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Rutherford
The passage opens: 'Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy.' Homi Bhabha is called the father of the Indian atomic age, which is different. Option (4).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 3प्रश्न 3
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Match the correct pair : (a) Heavy water factory : (i) Malabar (b) Thorium reserves : (ii) Jadugad (c) Production of Uranium fuel : (iii) Cyrus (d) India's nuclear reactor : (iv) Telcher
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
From the passage: heavy (density) water plants are at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota, so (a)-(iv); thorium stocks are on the Malabar coast, (b)-(i); uranium fuel is made at Jadugad, (c)-(ii); Cyrus is one of the reactors at Turbhe, (d)-(iii). Option (4).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 4प्रश्न 4
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
In which year, India established the Atomic Energy Commission ?
1. A.D. 1945
2. A.D. 1948
3. A.D. 1969
4. A.D. 1961
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) A.D. 1948
'The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948.' 1945 is the founding year of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 5प्रश्न 5
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity, Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared. Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. 'Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city & Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Where is Bhabha Atomic Research center located ?
1. Tarapur
2. Pokhran
3. Turbhe
4. Bengaluru
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Turbhe
The passage says the government named the atomic research centre at Turbhe near Mumbai the 'Bhabha Atomic Research Centre'. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 6प्रश्न 6
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
The rice-wheat system of the Indo-Gangetic plains fulfills the staple food requirements of how many people ?
1. 40 million
2. 400 million
3. 4000 million
4. 450 million
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 400 million
The second paragraph says the rice-wheat system 'meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people'. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 7प्रश्न 7
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
Which countries in South Asia are experiencing the effects of climate change on agricultural production ? Select the correct option.
1. India, Bangladesh, Nepal, China
2. India, Bangladesh and Japan
3. India, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Nepal
4. Bangladesh and Nepal
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) India, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Nepal
The vulnerable rice-wheat system discussed in the passage covers about 13.5 million hectares 'in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal'. China and Japan are not South Asian countries named in the passage, and option (4) leaves out two of the four. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 8प्रश्न 8
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
Select the consequences of threats to sustainability and food security in South Asia. (a) Low soil productivity and groundwater depletion. (b) Declining water availability and increased pest incidence. (c) Low literacy rate and lack of jobs. (d) Social discrimination and racism.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (a) and (c)
4. All above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) and (b)
The passage lists 'declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity' as what threatens sustainability and food security. That covers (a) and (b); literacy, jobs, discrimination and racism are never mentioned. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 9प्रश्न 9
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
What possible problems are climate change likely to create in the future for agricultural production in South Asia ? (a) Food production may decrease and poverty may increase. (b) Food production, especially rice and wheat will be adversely affected. (c) It will be beneficial for achieving sustainability and food security in South Asia. (d) Malnutrition and hunger rates may increase.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a), (b) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b) and (d)
Climate change is projected to have an 'often adverse impact' on agricultural production; heat extremes threaten rice and wheat (b); since agricultural productivity drives poverty reduction, lower output means more poverty (a), and lower staple food output for 400 million people points to more hunger and malnutrition (d). Statement (c) contradicts the passage, which says the region's food security is already threatened. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 10प्रश्न 10
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011). The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate-change-related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35-38°C and for wheat is 30-35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model-based projections of future agricultural output.
What is the approximate percentage share of the agricultural sector in South Asia's (2011), Gross National Domestic Product (GDP) ?
1. 18 percent
2. 20 percent
3. 22 percent
4. 24 percent
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 18 percent
The passage opens: 'Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to south Asia's GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013)'. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 11प्रश्न 11
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Who lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishesh ecologically ?
1. Polar birds, Seals, Bears
2. Sea seals, birds, Penguins
3. Polar bears, Penguins, Seals
4. Seals, Polar birds
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Polar bears, Penguins, Seals
The third paragraph says: 'Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes.' No birds are mentioned. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 12प्रश्न 12
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
What happens due to permafrost ? (a) Locks up carbon twicely. (b) Turn solid ground into slush. (c) Add oxygen in water. (d) Release methane and NO2.
1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (a) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b)
The passage says thawing permafrost is 'turning solid ground into slush', so (b) holds. It releases methane and CO2, not NO2, so (d) is wrong; nothing is said about adding oxygen to water (c). Statement (a) garbles the passage, which says permafrost holds twice the carbon now in the atmosphere, not that it locks carbon up 'twicely'. The official MPSC key gives only (b), option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 13प्रश्न 13
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Observe the following statements. (a) Since the 1990s, Earths ice sheets, glaciers and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. (b) Arctic ocean ice extent is now 40% smaller than in 1980. (c) West Antarctica's marine based glaciers vulnerable because of melting of ice.
1. Statements (a) and (b) are correct
2. Statements (a) and (c) are not correct
3. Only statement (a) is correct
4. Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Statements (a) and (c) are not correct
(c) is not correct: the passage says West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers are vulnerable 'because warm ocean water eats at their undersides', not simply because of melting ice. (b) agrees with the passage (September Arctic sea ice extent is 40% smaller than in 1980). (a) also reads like the passage's opening figure of 28 trillion tonnes lost since the 1990s, so on a plain reading (a) and (b) look correct; however, the official MPSC key gives option (2), that statements (a) and (c) are not correct.
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 14प्रश्न 14
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Why the water security of 2 billion people is in endanger ?
1. Glacier retreat
2. Ice river flood
3. Ice melt in Himalaya and Alps
4. Flood in world rivers
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Glacier retreat
'Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies.' Option (3) names the Alps, which the passage does not link to these 2 billion people, and floods are not mentioned. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 15प्रश्न 15
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human-caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO2. The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea-level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year - twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low-lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia. Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid-latitude weather - heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry-season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower. Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black-carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Who helps to regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoon in South Asia ?
1. Permafrost
2. Hydropower
3. Warm water stream from Greenland
4. Weaken Atlantic meridional overturning circulation
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Weaken Atlantic meridional overturning circulation
The passage says freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken 'the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia'. So the regulator is the AMOC (the circulation the passage describes as being weakened). Greenland sends freshwater, not warm water, and permafrost and hydropower play no such role. Option (4).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 16प्रश्न 16
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
Analysis of GDP helps ________. (a) In understanding extent and direction of changes in international trade (b) In identifying structural changes in an economy (c) In formulation of policies by the government Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
1. Only Statement (c)
2. Statements (a) and (c)
3. Statements (a) and (b)
4. Statements (b) and (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Statements (b) and (c)
The first paragraph says GDP analysis helps 'to identify structural changes taking place in the economy' (b) and 'helps the government in formulating policies' (c). It reveals the extent and direction of changes in levels of economic development, not of international trade, so (a) is wrong. Option (4).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 17प्रश्न 17
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the Maharashtra state economy is expected to grow at ________% whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at ________%.
1. 7.3;6.5
2. 8.7;4.9
3. 4.9;7.8
4. 7.3;7.8
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 7.3;6.5
'As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent.' Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 18प्रश्न 18
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates 2024-25, real gross state value added of 'agriculture and allied activities' and 'services' sector is expected to grow at ________% and ________% respectively.
1. 8.7;4.9
2. 8.7;7.8
3. 7.8;8.7
4. 4.9;7.8
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 8.7;7.8
Real GSVA growth for Agriculture, Industry and Services is 8.7, 4.9 and 7.8 percent. Agriculture and Services are therefore 8.7 and 7.8. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 19प्रश्न 19
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates 2024-25, the real GVA of industry is expected to grow at ________% while the real GSVA of industry is expected to grow at ________% in 2024-25.
1. 6.5;5.6
2. 5.6;4.9
3. 4.9;7.8
4. 5.6;7.8
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 5.6;4.9
National real GVA (NSO estimates) for Industry grows at 5.6 percent; Maharashtra's real GSVA for Industry grows at 4.9 percent. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 20प्रश्न 20
Maharashtra State Income The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro-economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. After COVID year 2020-21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024-25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019-20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post-COVID era. As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023-24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively. As per the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011-12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
The expected rise in gross state domestic product of Maharashtra in 2024-25, is due to which of the following factor/s ? (a) Expected stable growth in services sector (b) Expected increase in selected net product taxes (c) Expected dynamic reforms in state economy
1. Options (a) and (b) only
2. All of the above
3. Options (a) and (c) only
4. Options (b) and (c) only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Options (a) and (b) only
The second paragraph credits the momentum to the 'expected increase in selected expected Net product taxes and stable growth in Services sector'. That is (a) and (b). No reforms are mentioned, so (c) is not a stated factor. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 21प्रश्न 21
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following statement is correct ?
1. Electrons exist in the nucleus.
2. When electrons revolve around the nucleus, it emit light.
3. Electrons emit light when the average distance of the electrons from the nucleus remains constant.
4. When average distance of electrons changes from the nucleus, they emit light.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) When average distance of electrons changes from the nucleus, they emit light.
Per Bohr's model in the passage, while electrons revolve in fixed orbits the distance stays constant and nothing is emitted; 'when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy' (a spectral line). Electrons revolve around the nucleus, not inside it. Option (4).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 22प्रश्न 22
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
The colour of light emitting diode (LED) depends on which of the physical quantity ?
1. Band gap energy
2. Applied voltage
3. Applied excess energy
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Band gap energy
Each LED colour corresponds to a wavelength range, which is set by engineering the semiconductor's band gap: reducing the band gap shifts the colour, and yellow LEDs need fine-tuned alloys 'to produce the correct band gap'. Voltage or excess energy only makes the LED emit; the band gap fixes the colour. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 23प्रश्न 23
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following light emitting diode (LED) consume lower energy ?
1. Red light emitting diode (LED)
2. Yellow light emitting diode (LED)
3. Purple light emitting diode (LED)
4. Green light emitting diode (LED)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Red light emitting diode (LED)
'Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy.' Red is at the long-wavelength end of the spectrum, while purple needs the highest energy. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 24प्रश्न 24
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following is an appropriate title for the above passage ?
1. Light emitting diode (LED) technology : From Bohr's atomic model to coloured light emission
2. From atomic theory of light emitting diode (LED) colours : A scientific overview
3. The physics behind light emitting diode (LED) and their spectral properties
4. Light emitting diode (LED) colours and wavelength : Principles of light emission in semiconductor
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Light emitting diode (LED) technology : From Bohr's atomic model to coloured light emission
The passage starts with Bohr's atomic model and electron jumps, applies that principle to LEDs, and ends with how each LED colour is produced. Option (1) covers this whole arc; the others stress only one part (the physics in general, or colours and wavelengths). Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 25प्रश्न 25
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light-emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light-emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light-emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward-biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light-emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine-tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Puple LEDs have a weavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
By using Indium Gallium Nitride, which color light emitting diode (LED) emit ?
1. Red
2. Blue
3. Green
4. Yellow
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Green
'These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride.' Blue is mentioned only because the material can handle that energy too. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 26प्रश्न 26
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Arrange the following in correct chronological order (earliest to latest). (a) Appearance of Homo erectus (b) Existence of Dryopithecus (c) Development of prehistoric cave art (d) Rise of Australopithecines
1. (b), (d), (a), (c)
2. (b), (a), (d), (c)
3. (d), (b), (a), (c)
4. (b), (d), (c), (a)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (b), (d), (a), (c)
Dates from the passage: Dryopithecus about 15 mya (b), Australopithecines about 2 mya (d), Homo erectus about 1.5 mya (a), prehistoric cave art about 18,000 years ago (c). Order (b), (d), (a), (c), option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 27प्रश्न 27
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Why scientists believe that man like primates walked in Eastern Africa about 3-4 million years ago ?
1. Discovery of prehistoric cave paintings in central India
2. Discovery of stone tools used by Homo erectus in Java
3. Evidence of agriculture in early human settlements
4. Fossile evidence of man like bones with hominid features in Ethiopia and Tanzania
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Fossile evidence of man like bones with hominid features in Ethiopia and Tanzania
The passage says fossils of man-like bones found in Ethiopia and Tanzania 'revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa'. Option (4).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 28प्रश्न 28
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Which of the following events occurred latest in the evolutionary and cultural history of humans according to the passage ?
1. Appearance of Neanderthal man
2. Development of prehistoric cave art
3. Emergence of Homo erectus
4. Evolution of primates in Paleocene epoch
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Development of prehistoric cave art
Paleocene primates date to about 63 mya, Homo erectus to about 1.5 mya, Neanderthals to 1,00,000-40,000 years ago, and prehistoric cave art to about 18,000 years ago. Cave art is the most recent. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 29प्रश्न 29
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
What is the central idea of the given paragraph ?
1. Structure and Functions of the human brain
2. Art and Culture of ancient humans
3. Origin of humans and their evolution from primates
4. Development of agriculture and human settlements
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Origin of humans and their evolution from primates
The passage traces man's place among the primates and the stages from Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus through Australopithecines, Homo habilis, Homo erectus and Neanderthals to Homo sapiens. Brain size, cave art and agriculture are side details. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 30प्रश्न 30
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal kingdom and human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum chordata of Animal kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belong to order primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass-Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary periods, even though the earliest human fossil were recovered only from Pliocene, about 13 million years ago. About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right. Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800 cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Consider the following statements : (a) Australopithecines hunted with stone weapons but mainly ate fruit. (b) Homo habilis probably did not eat meat. (c) Homo erectus had smaller brain than Neanderthal man. (d) Neanderthal man lived between 75,000 - 10,000 years ago. Which of the above are correct ?
1. (a), (b) and (c) only
2. (b), (c) and (d) only
3. (a), (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(a) matches 'they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit'. (b) matches 'They probably did not eat meat' about Homo habilis. (c) is true: about 900 cc for Homo erectus against 1400 cc for Neanderthals. (d) is wrong: Neanderthals lived 1,00,000-40,000 years back; 75,000-10,000 years ago is when modern Homo sapiens arose. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 31प्रश्न 31
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
On what basis it could be known that, whether defendant had taken the due care established by law ?
1. Sudden Emergency
2. Experience
3. Fact
4. Evidence
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Fact
The passage says the question is not whether the defendant honestly thought his conduct careful 'but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law'. The test is the fact of the conduct. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 32प्रश्न 32
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
According to the paragraph what is care ?
1. is matter of degree
2. obligatory
3. duty
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) is matter of degree
The passage opens with its definition: 'Care is a matter of degree.' Duty and obligation describe the person's position, not what care is. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 33प्रश्न 33
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
What are those elements which imposes limits regarding the amount of care ? (a) Policy of law (b) Skill (c) Good sense (d) Nerve
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (b), (c) and (d) only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a) and (c) only
'Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve' required in an emergency. Good sense and policy of law are what impose the limit; care, skill and nerve are what is limited. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 34प्रश्न 34
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
Whether the standard of care be fixed or not ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Yes
The law must 'determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory'; 'that is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care'. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 35प्रश्न 35
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil. On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
Why the law allows the danger to be created knowingly ?
1. There is no risk at all
2. The danger is invisible
3. The danger is small
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) The danger is small
'The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created.' The passage admits some risk exists, so (1) is wrong. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 36प्रश्न 36
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
What was the nature of the administrative structure under the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
1. Decentralised and autonomous Provinces
2. Rigidly centralised with unitary control
3. Federal System with Shared Power
4. Antonomous regions governed by local chiefs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Rigidly centralised with unitary control
'The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised.' Provinces were headed by Governors under this central control, so they were not autonomous or federal. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 37प्रश्न 37
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
Who exercised the powers of the Crown in India according to the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
1. Secretary of State for India
2. Indian Civil Service
3. Council of India
4. East India Company directors
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Secretary of State for India
'By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India).' The Council only assisted. Option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 38प्रश्न 38
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
What was the dominant principle of the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
1. Popular Participation in Administration
2. Absolute Imperial Control
3. Shared governance with Indian representatives
4. Decentralised Administration
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Absolute Imperial Control
The Act 'was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country'. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 39प्रश्न 39
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
Who assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company in 1858 ?
1. British Parliament
2. British Crown
3. Indian National Congress
4. British Multinational Company
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) British Crown
1858 is the year 'when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company'. Parliament enacted the statute but sovereignty passed to the Crown. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 40प्रश्न 40
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution. Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system. For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government. The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
How was India governed under the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
1. By Local elected councils
2. By a Governor-General appointed by the Indian People
3. By the British Parliament directly
4. By the Secretary of State for India through the Governor-General
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) By the Secretary of State for India through the Governor-General
'The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council.' There were no elected councils or popular appointments. Option (4).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 41प्रश्न 41
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
आइन्स्टाइन यांना कोणत्या शाखेसाठी असणारे नोबेल पारितोषिक प्राप्त झाले ?
1. भौतिकशास्त्र
2. रसायनशास्त्र
3. जीवशास्त्र
4. वनस्पतीशास्त्र
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) भौतिकशास्त्र
The passage says that in 1922 Einstein received the Nobel Prize for the physics branch (padarthavidnyan shakha). Physics (bhautikshastra) is option (1).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 42प्रश्न 42
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
आइन्स्टाइनच्या विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ केव्हापासून सुरू होतो ? (अ) बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलविल्यानंतर (ब) पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयातील नोकरी सोडल्यानंतर (क) आपले जगणे, आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे हे जीवनाचे सूत्र न कळाल्यामुळे. (ड) शोधनिबंध आणि पीएच.डी. पदवी संपादनासाठी स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केल्यानंतर
1. (अ) आणि (क) बरोबर
2. (ब) आणि (ड) बरोबर
3. (अ) आणि (ड) बरोबर
4. (क) आणि (ड) बरोबर
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (ब) आणि (ड) बरोबर
The first paragraph tells of his junior job at the Bern patent office, his research papers and the thesis that won him a Zurich Ph.D., after which the university invited him as a professor. The second paragraph begins 'from here on' (yethun pudhe) Einstein experienced a period rich in ideas. So the period starts after he left the patent office job for academia (b) and after publishing his papers and thesis (d). The visit to the Queen of Belgium (a) came much later, and (c) twists his saying about living for others. Option (2).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 43प्रश्न 43
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
आइन्स्टाइन हा कोणत्या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता ?
1. सॉक्रेटीस
2. प्लेटो
3. रॉजर बेकन
4. स्पिनोझा
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) स्पिनोझा
The passage states that Einstein was an admirer of the philosopher Spinoza. Option (4).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 44प्रश्न 44
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
बेल्जियमच्या राणीस आइन्स्टाइन भेटावयास गेला होता. याबाबतीत पुढील विधाने वाचून योग्य पर्याय निवडा. (अ) बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटावयास बोलविले होते. (ब) तो राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. (क) त्याच्या हातात सुटकेस व व्हायोलिन होते. (ड) स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी फक्त वाहने होती.
1. फक्त (अ) व (ब) बरोबर
2. फक्त (अ), (क) व (ड) बरोबर
3. फक्त (अ), (ब) व (क) बरोबर
4. सर्व पर्याय बरोबर
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) फक्त (अ), (ब) व (क) बरोबर
The passage says the Queen of Belgium invited him (a), he walked to the palace (b) with a suitcase in one hand and a violin in the other (c). Statement (d) is wrong because both vehicles and officials were waiting at the station, not only vehicles. Option (3).
MPSC 2026 CSAT, question 45प्रश्न 45
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून निमंत्रित केले. येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली. खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादावरचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशात आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात तो दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच काळाच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र हे व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य।" आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........., दिक आणि काल ही स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
योग्य जोड्या लावून पर्याय ओळखा : (a) वयाच्या 23 व्या वर्षी : (i) सापेक्षतावादावरील ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध (b) 1905 मध्ये : (ii) झुरिच विद्यापीठात प्रवेश (c) 1922 मध्ये : (iii) दुय्यम नोकरी प्राप्त (d) 1909 मध्ये : (iv) नोबेल पुरस्कार प्राप्त
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
From the passage: in his 23rd year he took a junior job at the Bern patent office, (a)-(iii); in 1905 his book on relativity was published, (b)-(i); in 1922 he won the Nobel Prize, (c)-(iv); in 1909 he joined Zurich University, (d)-(ii). Option (3).
MPSC 2025 CSAT, question 65प्रश्न 65
Choose the word that best fits the meaning. "to make something less severe or intense".
1. Intensity
2. Mitigate
3. Provoke
4. Amplify
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Mitigate
'Mitigate' means to make something less severe. Provoke and amplify mean the opposite, and 'intensity' is a noun for the degree of strength. Option (2).
MPSC 2025 CSAT, question 66प्रश्न 66
Smita packed her science project carefully into a large box. She double-checked the checklist her teacher had given, making sure, she had her charts, model and explanation sheet. Her mother waited by the door with an umbrella, glancing nervously at the cloudy sky. The school exhibition was only an hour away and they had to walk through the market to get there.
What might happen next based on the passage ?
1. Smita forgets her charts at home
2. Her project gets damaged in the rain
3. She arrives at school and sets up her exhibit
4. Her teacher cancels the exhibition
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Her project gets damaged in the rain
The passage builds up the threat of rain: the sky is cloudy, her mother glances at it nervously with an umbrella ready, and they have to walk through the market carrying a large box. These cues foreshadow rain spoiling the project. (1) is ruled out because she double-checked that she had her charts, and nothing points to (4). The official MPSC key gives option (2).
MPSC 2025 CSAT, question 67प्रश्न 67
Smita packed her science project carefully into a large box. She double-checked the checklist her teacher had given, making sure, she had her charts, model and explanation sheet. Her mother waited by the door with an umbrella, glancing nervously at the cloudy sky. The school exhibition was only an hour away and they had to walk through the market to get there.
Which detail suggest urgency in the situation ?
1. Smita's mother had an umbrella
2. The exhibition is only an hour away
3. The checklist included charts and model
4. Smita packed her box carefully
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) The exhibition is only an hour away
Urgency comes from time pressure: the exhibition is only an hour away and they still have to walk through the market. The other details describe preparation, not urgency. Option (2).
MPSC 2025 CSAT, question 68प्रश्न 68
Smita packed her science project carefully into a large box. She double-checked the checklist her teacher had given, making sure, she had her charts, model and explanation sheet. Her mother waited by the door with an umbrella, glancing nervously at the cloudy sky. The school exhibition was only an hour away and they had to walk through the market to get there.
What does the phrase "glancing nervously at the cloudy sky" suggest about Smita's mother ?
1. She is worried about getting late
2. She doesn't want Smita to go
3. She is concerned about the weather
4. She forgot her umbrella
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) She is concerned about the weather
She looks nervously at the clouds, so she is worried it may rain, which means she is concerned about the weather. She already has the umbrella, which rules out (4). Option (3).
MPSC 2025 CSAT, question 69प्रश्न 69
Smita packed her science project carefully into a large box. She double-checked the checklist her teacher had given, making sure, she had her charts, model and explanation sheet. Her mother waited by the door with an umbrella, glancing nervously at the cloudy sky. The school exhibition was only an hour away and they had to walk through the market to get there.
Based on the passage, what can be inferred about Smita's attitude towards her project ?
1. She is anxious and unprepared
2. She is excited but unsure
3. She is methodical and committed
4. She is uninterested and casual
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) She is methodical and committed
She packs the project carefully and double-checks the teacher's checklist for her charts, model and explanation sheet. That shows a methodical, committed attitude. Option (3).
MPSC 2024 CSAT, question 48प्रश्न 48
Match the following : A (a) inherently (b) dogmatism (c) persecution (d) prejudice (e) insular B (i) unreasonable dislike or preference (ii) cruelty (iii) narrow minded (iv) by its very nature (v) authoritarianism Answer options : (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1. (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
2. (i) (iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
3. (iii) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
4. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
Inherently means by its very nature (iv); dogmatism is the authoritarian assertion of beliefs (v); persecution is cruel ill-treatment (ii); prejudice is an unreasonable dislike or preference (i); insular means narrow minded (iii). That is a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-i, e-iii: option (1).
MPSC 2024 CSAT, question 52प्रश्न 52
Which organizational pattern is often used in persuasive essays to present arguments and counter arguments ?
1. Problem and solution
2. Point-by-point
3. Cause and effect
4. Compare and contrast
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Point-by-point
In a persuasive essay each argument is usually taken up in turn and answered with its counter-argument, i.e. a point-by-point structure. Problem-solution and cause-effect organise explanations, and compare-contrast is used for weighing two subjects. Option (2).
MPSC 2024 CSAT, question 59प्रश्न 59
Choose the correct meaning of the given idiom. "To pick a bone with one"
1. To learn
2. To blame
3. To criticise
4. To die
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) To blame
To have or pick a bone with someone means to have a complaint against them, i.e. to hold them responsible for something and confront them about it. Of the choices, that is "to blame". Option (2).
MPSC 2024 CSAT, question 61प्रश्न 61
In the phrase "The end of the story". What does "of" indicate ?
1. Possession
2. Location
3. Time
4. Relationship or connection
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Relationship or connection
In "the end of the story", "of" links the end to the story it belongs to, i.e. it shows a relationship or connection between the two nouns, not ownership, place or time. Option (4).
MPSC 2024 CSAT, question 63प्रश्न 63
What is the main idea in the sentence ? "After hours of practice, she finally mastered the piano piece"
1. She enjoys playing the piano
2. Practising the piano is difficult
3. The piano piece was challenging
4. Dedication leads to mastery
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Dedication leads to mastery
The sentence links hours of practice to finally mastering the piece; its point is that sustained effort (dedication) brings mastery. Enjoyment is not mentioned, and difficulty is only implied. Option (4).
MPSC 2024 CSAT, question 72प्रश्न 72
Which transition word suggests a continuation of the previous idea ?
1. Nevertheless
2. Consequently
3. Additionally
4. In conclusion
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Additionally
"Additionally" adds another point in the same line of thought, so it continues the previous idea. "Nevertheless" signals contrast, "Consequently" a result, and "In conclusion" a summing up. Option (3).
MPSC 2022 CSAT, question 48प्रश्न 48
From the alternatives given, select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word. They are carrying out a charade of negotiations with the government. (Underlined word: charade)
1. series
2. charter
3. absurd pretence
4. spate
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) absurd pretence
A 'charade' is an absurd pretence: a show put on to look genuine when it is not. A 'charade of negotiations' means talks that are only for show. 'Series' and 'spate' refer to a number of things, and 'charter' is a formal document. Answer: option (3).
MPSC 2022 CSAT, question 49प्रश्न 49
Choose the correct antonym from the options given. "Termagant"
1. Charming
2. Turbulent
3. Brawling
4. Shrewish
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Charming
A 'termagant' is a harsh, quarrelsome, overbearing woman (a shrew). 'Turbulent', 'brawling' and 'shrewish' are all close in meaning to it; the opposite quality is 'charming'. Answer: option (1).

Questions and answer keys are published by the Maharashtra Public Service Commission (mpsc.gov.in). Explanations are written by IndiaDigital; if one looks wrong, use the report link under it.प्रश्न और उत्तर-कुंजियाँ महाराष्ट्र लोक सेवा आयोग (mpsc.gov.in) द्वारा प्रकाशित हैं। व्याख्याएँ IndiaDigital ने लिखी हैं; कोई गलत लगे तो उसके नीचे दिए लिंक से बताइए।

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