MPSC prelims Polity: previous year questionsMPSC प्रीलिम्स राजव्यवस्था: पिछले वर्षों के प्रश्न

114 questions from the prelims papers of 2020 to 2026, newest first. Read the question, try it, then open the answer: it comes from the official MPSC answer key, with a short explanation.2020 से 2026 तक के प्रीलिम्स पेपरों से 114 प्रश्न, नए पहले। प्रश्न पढ़िए, हल कीजिए, फिर उत्तर खोलिए: वह आधिकारिक MPSC उत्तर-कुंजी से है, साथ में छोटी व्याख्या।

MPSC 2026, question 23प्रश्न 23
As per the Government Resolution dated October 9, 2024, what is the minimum population requirement for establishment a 'Gram Panchayat' in Banjara/Laman/Labhan Tanda areas ?
1. 600
2. 700
3. 800
4. 900
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 700
The Maharashtra government resolution of 9 October 2024 allowed separate gram panchayats for Banjara, Laman and Labhan tandas with a minimum population of 700, so the answer is option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Samyukta Maharashtra and Local Government
MPSC 2026, question 36प्रश्न 36
With reference to the 'National Policy on the Voluntary Sector-2007' consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of Voluntary Organization (VOs) : (a) These organizations are private in nature and separate from the Government. (b) They do not return profits generated to their owners or directors. (c) They are self-governing and are controlled by the Government. (d) They are registered organizations or informal groups with defined aims and objectives. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
2. Only (b), (c) and (d)
3. Only (a), (b) and (d)
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (a), (b) and (d)
The 2007 policy describes voluntary organizations as private bodies separate from government, not returning profits to owners or directors, self-governing (not controlled by government), and registered or informal groups with defined aims. Statement (c) is wrong, so the answer is option (3).
MPSC 2026, question 38प्रश्न 38
Under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect regarding the employment regulations for women before and after childbirth ? (a) The Act mandates six weeks of leave after childbirth. (b) The Act mandates six weeks of leave before and ten weeks after childbirth. (c) The Act applies to all establishments without considering minimum number of employee. (d) The Act provides maternity and other benefits.
1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. (a), (b) and (d)
4. (b) and (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) (b) and (c)
The Act bars employing a woman for six weeks immediately after delivery and provides maternity and other benefits, so (a) and (d) are correct. It does not prescribe six weeks before and ten weeks after, and it covers shops and establishments only above a minimum of ten employees, so (b) and (c) are incorrect, option (4).
MPSC 2026, question 71प्रश्न 71
Under which of the closure motion, only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting and the intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed ?
1. Simple closure
2. Closure by compartments
3. Kangaroo closure
4. Guillotine closure
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Kangaroo closure
Under kangaroo closure only the important clauses are taken up for debate and vote, and the clauses in between are jumped over and treated as passed. So the answer is option (3).
MPSC 2026, question 72प्रश्न 72
Select the incorrect statement from the following :
1. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by Court Martial while the Governor cannot.
2. The President is bound to give reasons for pardoning power.
3. The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral bearing by the President.
4. The Pardoning power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) The President is bound to give reasons for pardoning power.
Under Article 72 the President acts on the advice of the Union Cabinet, can pardon court-martial sentences (the Governor cannot), and need not give the petitioner an oral hearing. The Supreme Court has held that the President is not bound to give reasons for a pardoning decision, so statement (2) is the incorrect one, option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2026, question 73प्रश्न 73
Who determines remuneration of the Advocate General for the State ?
1. Parliament
2. President
3. Legislative Assembly
4. Governor
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Governor
Under Article 165 the Advocate General is appointed by the Governor, holds office during the Governor's pleasure and receives the remuneration the Governor determines. So the answer is option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2026, question 74प्रश्न 74
Select the correct statements from the following : (a) Prohibition is issued by a Higher Court to a Lower Court or tribunal and is intended to prohibit it from exceeding its jurisdiction. (b) Writ of prohibition can be issued against administrative agencies. (c) Writ of prohibition is issued against judicial and quasi judicial bodies.
1. Only (a), (b)
2. Only (a), (c)
3. Only (b), (c)
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (a), (c)
A writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to stop it from exceeding its jurisdiction. It lies only against judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, not administrative authorities, so the answer is option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Fundamental Rights Remedies: The Five Writs
MPSC 2026, question 75प्रश्न 75
Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect ? (a) B.N. Rau was advisor of the Constituent Assembly. (b) B.N. Rau prepared draft Constitution in October, 1947. (c) A draft Constitution prepared by B.N. Rau contained 310 Articles and 8 Schedules. (d) A draft Constitution prepared by B.N. Rau contained 243 Articles and 13 Schedules.
1. (a) and (c)
2. (b) and (c)
3. Only (d)
4. Only (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (c)
Sir B.N. Rau, the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly, prepared a draft in October 1947 with 243 articles and 13 schedules. So only statement (c) is incorrect, option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2026, question 76प्रश्न 76
Which of the following matters are included in the 12th schedule of the Constitution of India ? (a) Promotion of artistic vision, fire fighting services (b) Cremation ground and electric crematorium (c) Market & fairs, rural housing (d) Protection of the interest of the handicapped and mentally retarded, protection of the environment.
1. Only (a), (b) and (d)
2. Only (c) and (d)
3. Only (a), (b) and (c)
4. Only (b), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b) and (d)
The Twelfth Schedule lists municipal functions such as fire services, promotion of cultural and aesthetic aspects, cremation grounds and electric crematoriums, safeguarding the handicapped and mentally retarded, and protection of the environment. Markets and fairs and rural housing are panchayat subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, so the answer is option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
MPSC 2026, question 77प्रश्न 77
The National Commission to review the working of the Constitution has recommended that for effectuating fundamental duties are __________. (a) Duty to vote at elections (b) To pay taxes (c) Duty of industrial organisations to provide education to children of their employees (d) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and moral well-being of children
1. Only (a), (b)
2. Only (c), (d)
3. Only (a), (c), (d)
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b)
The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000-02) suggested adding duties such as voting at elections and paying taxes to the Fundamental Duties. The official MPSC key gives option (1), only (a) and (b).
MPSC 2026, question 78प्रश्न 78
Which of the following statement/s is incorrect about Committee on Public Undertakings of the Parliament ? (a) Pandit Nehru recommended the creation of this Committee in 1963. (b) The Chairman of this Committee is appointed only from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha. (c) From, 1974, 15 members are elected from Lok Sabha and 7 members are elected from Rajya Sabha on this Committee. (d) The tenure of members of this Committee is two years.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (b), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) and (d)
The Committee on Public Undertakings was set up in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee, not Nehru in 1963, and its members serve for one year, not two. Its chairman comes only from the Lok Sabha members, and since 1974 it has 15 Lok Sabha and 7 Rajya Sabha members, so (a) and (d) are incorrect, option (2).
MPSC 2026, question 79प्रश्न 79
Which of the following statements about Veto power of President are correct ? (a) He/she can withholds his/her assent to the bill. (b) Governor may reserve a bill for consideration of the President in any case he/she thinks fit. (c) President can return bill to Parliament for reconsideration with message to both houses.
1. Only (a) and (b)
2. Only (b) and (c)
3. Only (a) and (c)
4. (a), (b), (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c)
Under Article 111 the President may withhold assent or return a non-money bill with a message for reconsideration, and under Article 200 a Governor may reserve a state bill for the President's consideration. All three statements are correct, option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2026, question 80प्रश्न 80
Find the correct statements regarding Inter-State Council. (a) It is mentioned in the article 263. (b) The President is empowered to establish it. (c) The President of India has never exercised this power and has not so far established any such Inter-State Council under power of article 263.
1. (a), (b), (c)
2. (a), (b)
3. (b), (c)
4. (a), (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a), (b)
Article 263 empowers the President to set up an Inter-State Council. This power has been used: an Inter-State Council was established in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's advice, so (c) is wrong and the answer is option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2026, question 81प्रश्न 81
Which of the following statement/s are correct ? (a) According to K.C. Wheare, Indian Federalism is 'quasi-federal'. (b) According to Morris Jones, Indian Federalism is 'bargaining federalism'. (c) According to C.F. Strong, Indian Federalism is 'less federalism'. (d) According to Granville Austin, Indian Federalism is 'Cooperative federalism'.
1. Only (a) and (d)
2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
3. Only (a)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
K.C. Wheare called India quasi-federal, Morris-Jones described it as bargaining federalism, Granville Austin as cooperative federalism, and C.F. Strong's description is given as less federal. The official MPSC key treats all four as correct, option (4).
MPSC 2026, question 82प्रश्न 82
According to simple majority of the Parliament which types of Constitutional Amendments shall be made ? Choose correct statement/s. (a) Establishment of new States. (b) Amendment related to President's emoluments and allowances. (c) Amendment related to Directive Principles to State Policy. (d) Delimitation of Constituencies.
1. (a) and (c)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (a), (b) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b) and (d)
Formation of new states, the emoluments in the Second Schedule and delimitation of constituencies can be changed by a simple majority of Parliament. Amending the Directive Principles needs a special majority under Article 368, so the answer is option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2026, question 83प्रश्न 83
Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution establishes the independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India ?
1. Article 141
2. Article 144
3. Article 148
4. Article 149
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Article 148
Article 148 provides for the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India; Article 149 deals with the CAG's duties and powers. So the answer is option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2026, question 84प्रश्न 84
The provision of double citizenship to overseas citizens of India, applies only to those in some specified countries. These are : (a) Finland (b) Israel (c) Republic of Cyprus (d) Portugal
1. Only (a), (b), (c)
2. Only (b), (c), (d)
3. Only (a), (c), (d)
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above
When overseas citizenship was introduced by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003, it was limited to persons of Indian origin in 16 specified countries, which included Finland, Israel, the Republic of Cyprus and Portugal. So the answer is option (4).
MPSC 2026, question 85प्रश्न 85
Match the correct pairs of the following articles of the Constitution of India with the subject. Subject : Articles (a) Language to be used in the complaint for redressal of grievances : (i) 350 A (b) Facilities for education in mother tongue at primary level : (ii) 351 (c) Special officer for linguistic minority communities : (iii) 350 (d) Directive for development of Hindi Language : (iv) 350 B
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Article 350 covers the language of representations for redress of grievances, 350A primary education in the mother tongue, 350B the Special Officer for linguistic minorities, and 351 the directive for developing Hindi. This is option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2025, question 71प्रश्न 71
Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts provided for the formation of the 'Metropolitan Planning Committee' ?
1. 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
2. 44th Constitution Amendment Act
3. 73rd Constitution Amendment Act
4. 74th Constitution Amendment Act
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 74th Constitution Amendment Act
The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 on urban local bodies added Part IXA, whose Article 243ZE provides for a Metropolitan Planning Committee in every metropolitan area.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2025, question 72प्रश्न 72
Identify the incorrect pair/s of the various Committees constituted under the Indian Constituent Assembly and its Chairmans. A. Steering Committee - Rajendra Prasad B. Advisory Committee - Vallabhbhai Patel C. Central Rights Committee - J. B. Kripalani D. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. C and D
4. A and B
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) C and D
Rajendra Prasad chaired the Steering Committee and Vallabhbhai Patel the Advisory Committee. The Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee was chaired by J. B. Kripalani, while Nehru chaired the Union Powers Committee, so pairs C and D are incorrect.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2025, question 73प्रश्न 73
Select the correct statement/s from the following. A. The Vice-President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. B. A Vice-President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. C. A Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House of People and approved by the Council of States.
1. Only A
2. Only B, C
3. Only A, C
4. Only A, B
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only A, B
Under Article 67, the Vice-President holds office for five years from entering office and may resign by writing to the President. Removal needs a resolution of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) passed by a majority of all its members and agreed to by the House of the People, so C reverses the Houses.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2025, question 74प्रश्न 74
Identify the incorrect statement/s from the following about provisions for Anglo-Indian Community. A. Article 335 is related to Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly. B. Grants if any, were made for the benefit of the Anglo-Indian Community in respect of education in the financial year ending on the 31st March, 1948, the same shall be given for the first three financial years after the commencement of the Constitution. C. During every succeeding period of three years, the grants may be less 10%, than that, for the immediately preceding period of three years.
1. Only A
2. Only B and C
3. Only C
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A
Representation of Anglo-Indians in State Legislative Assemblies was under Article 333, while Article 335 deals with claims of SCs and STs to services. Statements B and C correctly describe the educational grants under Article 337, so only A is incorrect.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2025, question 75प्रश्न 75
Which of the following are related to Article 1 to 4 of Part I of the Constitution of India ? a. The union and its territory b. About the Fundamental Rights c. About the Justice d. Regarding duties
1. Only b and d
2. Only c and a
3. Only a
4. Only a and b
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only a
Part I (Articles 1 to 4) is titled 'The Union and its Territory' and deals with the name of India, admission and formation of states and changes in their boundaries. Fundamental Rights are in Part III and Fundamental Duties in Part IVA.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2025, question 76प्रश्न 76
Identify the States without special status under Article 371 and its Sub-Articles of the Constitution of India.
1. Nagaland, Assam
2. Manipur, Sikkim
3. Mizoram, Nagaland
4. Tripura, Jharkhand
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Tripura, Jharkhand
Articles 371A to 371J give special provisions for Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Sikkim, Mizoram and others, but Tripura and Jharkhand have no such provision under Article 371.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2025, question 77प्रश्न 77
The First Lok Adalat Camp after Independence was held in which State in 1982 ?
1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Punjab
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Gujarat
The first Lok Adalat camp in independent India was held in Gujarat in 1982 (at Junagadh). Lok Adalats later received statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
MPSC 2025, question 78प्रश्न 78
B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya was a Chairman of the following Committees. A. House Committee B. Committee on Chief Commissioner's Provinces C. Adhoc Committee on Citizenship D. Adhoc Committee on Supreme Court
1. Only A, B
2. Only C, D
3. Only A, D
4. Only B, C
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A, B
In the Constituent Assembly, B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya chaired the House Committee and the Committee on Chief Commissioners' Provinces. The ad hoc committees on citizenship and on the Supreme Court were chaired by S. Varadachariar, so only A and B are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2025, question 79प्रश्न 79
The 'National Commission for Protection of Child Rights' (NCPCR) in India was established in which year ?
1. 2001
2. 2005
3. 2007
4. 2010
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) 2007
The NCPCR was set up in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. The Act was passed in 2005 but the Commission began functioning in 2007.
MPSC 2025, question 80प्रश्न 80
The 'Protection of Children from Sexual Offences' (POCSO) Act was enacted in India in which year ?
1. 2009
2. 2012
3. 2015
4. 2018
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 2012
The POCSO Act was enacted in 2012 to protect children below 18 years from sexual assault, harassment and pornography, with child-friendly trial procedures.
MPSC 2025, question 81प्रश्न 81
When was the National Commission for Women established in India ?
1. 1990
2. 1991
3. 1992
4. 1993
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) 1992
The National Commission for Women was set up on 31 January 1992 as a statutory body under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
MPSC 2025, question 82प्रश्न 82
Which of the following functions were performed by Constituent Assembly on January 24, 1950 ? A. Adopted the National Flag B. Adopted the National Anthem C. Adopted the National Song D. Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as a First President of India
1. Only A, B, C
2. Only A, B, D
3. Only A, C, D
4. Only B, C, D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only B, C, D
At its final session on 24 January 1950, the Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem and the National Song and elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President. The National Flag had been adopted earlier, on 22 July 1947.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2025, question 83प्रश्न 83
Select the correct statements from the following. A. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November, 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. B. Cabinet Mission rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies. C. The Cripps Proposal was accepted by the Muslim League.
1. Only A, B
2. Only B, C
3. Only A, C
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A, B
The Constituent Assembly was formed in November 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan, which rejected the Muslim League's demand for two separate Constituent Assemblies. The Muslim League rejected the Cripps Proposal of 1942, so C is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2025, question 84प्रश्न 84
In which country, the concept of Modern Constitutionalism was started ?
1. America
2. England
3. France
4. India
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) America
The United States adopted the first modern written constitution in 1787, limiting government through a written supreme law, separation of powers and later a Bill of Rights. The official MPSC key gives option (1), America.
MPSC 2025, question 85प्रश्न 85
Identify the correct statement/s from the following. A. A person who holds, or who has held office as President shall, subject to the other provisions of the Constitution, be eligible for re-election to that office. B. No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he is qualified for election as a member of the Council of the States.
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A
Article 57 makes a sitting or former President eligible for re-election. Article 58 requires a presidential candidate to be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), not the Council of States, so only A is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2025, question 95प्रश्न 95
What is the meaning of 'guillotine' in the Indian Budget Process ? a. Raising taxes to fill Government deficits. b. Remaining budgetary demands for grants are put to vote without further discussion. c. Reserve Bank's support during financial crises. d. Rejection by the Parliament at the end of the budget. Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
1. Only b
2. Only c and d
3. Only a, b and c
4. Only a
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only b
On the last day allotted for discussion of demands for grants, the Speaker puts all remaining demands to vote together without further discussion. This procedure is called the guillotine.
MPSC 2024, question 9प्रश्न 9
What were the main principles of the National Education Policy of 1968 based on the recommendations of the Kothari Commission ? (a) Compulsory and free education till the age of 14 years. (b) Higher position and improved pay for teachers. (c) At least 10% of gross national income spent on education.
1. Only (a) and (b)
2. Only (b) and (c)
3. Only (a) and (c)
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a) and (b)
The 1968 policy called for free and compulsory education up to 14 years and for better status and pay for teachers. The spending target it set was 6 percent of national income, not 10 percent, so statement (c) is wrong.
MPSC 2024, question 71प्रश्न 71
Who among the following are members of a Committee that recommends the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner ? (A) Prime Minister (B) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (C) Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (D) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. (E) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
1. (A), (B) and (D)
2. (A), (B), (C) and (E)
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
4. (A), (B) and (E)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (A), (B) and (D)
Under Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. So option (1) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2024, question 72प्रश्न 72
Which Article in the Constitution of India provides for the Post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) ?
1. Article 148
2. Article 343
3. Article 266
4. Article 248
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Article 148
Article 148 provides for a Comptroller and Auditor General of India appointed by the President. Article 343 deals with the official language, Article 266 with the Consolidated Fund and Article 248 with residuary powers.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2024, question 73प्रश्न 73
Consider the following statements regarding 'Kesavanand Bharati' Case : (A) This case was heard by the Constitution Bench of 13 judges headed by Chief Justice of India A.N. Ray. (B) In Seven - Six majority, the bench outlined the basic structure doctrine. (C) This case changed the decision of Golaknath case. (D) This case seems to be the instance of judicial activism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. (A), (B) and (C)
2. (B), (C) and (D)
3. (B) Only
4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (B), (C) and (D)
The 13-judge bench in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) was headed by Chief Justice S. M. Sikri, not A. N. Ray, so (A) is wrong. By a 7 to 6 majority it laid down the basic structure doctrine, overruled Golaknath on Parliament's power to amend fundamental rights, and is widely cited as judicial activism, so (B), (C) and (D) are correct.
MPSC 2024, question 74प्रश्न 74
The Contingency Fund of India has been placed at the disposal of which authority among the following ?
1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
2. President of India
3. Parliament of India
4. Prime Minister of India
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) President of India
Under Article 267, the Contingency Fund of India is placed at the disposal of the President, who can make advances from it to meet unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation by Parliament. So option (2) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2024, question 75प्रश्न 75
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 'Bommai Case' in reference to the Emergency in the State ? (A) The 'Bommai Case' Judgement was delivered by the Supreme Court in 1994. (B) States can appeal to the Supreme Court when President's rule is introduced in the States. (C) If President's Rule is imposed without valid reason/s the Supreme Court can quash the decision of the Central Government. (D) An order to dissolve a State Assembly requires the approval of the Parliament.
1. Only (C) and (D)
2. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
4. Only (A), (B) and (C)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
In S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court held that a proclamation under Article 356 is open to judicial review and can be struck down if based on irrelevant or mala fide grounds. It also ruled that the State Assembly can be dissolved only after both Houses of Parliament approve the proclamation, so all four statements are correct.
MPSC 2024, question 76प्रश्न 76
Identify the incorrect pair :
1. July 22, 1947 - Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent Assembly.
2. January 24, 1950 - Adoption of National Anthem by the Constituent Assembly.
3. January 25, 1950 - Adoption of National Calendar by the Government.
4. January 26, 1950 - Adoption of National Emblem by the Government.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) January 25, 1950 - Adoption of National Calendar by the Government.
The national flag was adopted on 22 July 1947, the national anthem on 24 January 1950 and the national emblem on 26 January 1950. The national calendar (Saka calendar) was adopted only on 22 March 1957, so pair (3) is incorrect.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2024, question 77प्रश्न 77
Consider the following statement/s regarding constitutional amendment/s in India and Choose the correct option/s. (A) Dadra and Nagar Haveli territories were included in India as per the 10th Amendment. (B) The territories of Diu, Daman and Goa were included in India as per the 11th Amendment. (C) Legislature was established in Union Territories as per the 15th Amendment. (D) The state of Meghalaya was created as per the 22nd Amendment.
1. (A) and (C) correct
2. (B) and (D) correct
3. (B) and (C) correct
4. (A) and (D) correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) (A) and (D) correct
The 10th Amendment (1961) incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and the 22nd Amendment (1969) provided for creating Meghalaya as an autonomous state within Assam. Goa, Daman and Diu came in through the 12th Amendment and legislatures for Union Territories through the 14th, so (B) and (C) are wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2024, question 78प्रश्न 78
The Central Information Commission includes one Chief Information Commissioner and Maximum how many Information Commissioners ?
1. Five Information Commissioners
2. Ten Information Commissioners
3. Six Information Commissioners
4. Eight Information Commissioners
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Ten Information Commissioners
Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission consists of the Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners. So option (2) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2024, question 79प्रश्न 79
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the citizenship of India ? (A) India has single citizenship system. (B) Citizenship Act was passed in 1955. (C) Part 4 of the Indian Constitution provides citizenship.
1. Only (A) & (C) Correct
2. Only (A) Correct
3. Only (A) & (B) Correct
4. All of the above are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (A) & (B) Correct
India has a single citizenship for the whole country, and Parliament passed the Citizenship Act in 1955. Citizenship is dealt with in Part II (Articles 5 to 11), not Part IV, which contains the Directive Principles, so only (A) and (B) are correct.
MPSC 2024, question 80प्रश्न 80
Which Articles in the Constitution provide for the electoral system in our country ?
1. Articles 124 to 128
2. Articles 324 to 329
3. Articles 256 to 259
4. Articles 274 to 279
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Articles 324 to 329
Part XV of the Constitution, Articles 324 to 329, deals with elections, including the Election Commission (Article 324) and electoral rolls. So option (2) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2024, question 81प्रश्न 81
The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning : (A) The state makes discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment. (B) The state avoids preferential treatment for any particular religion. (C) The state treats all religions equally. (D) Freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people. (E) Educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instructions.
1. (A), (B) and (C)
2. (B), (C) and (D)
3. (A), (C), (D) and (E)
4. (B) and (D)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (B), (C) and (D)
A secular state has no official religion, does not favour any religion, treats all religions equally and guarantees freedom of conscience and worship. Article 16 bars religious discrimination in public employment, and Article 28 forbids religious instruction in wholly state-funded institutions, so (A) and (E) are wrong and option (2) is correct.
MPSC 2024, question 82प्रश्न 82
Delhi was called National Capital Territory by which Constitution Amendment Act ?
1. 63rd Constitutional Amendment Act
2. 69th Constitutional Amendment Act
3. 91st Constitutional Amendment Act
4. 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 69th Constitutional Amendment Act
The 69th Amendment Act, 1991, inserted Articles 239AA and 239AB, renaming the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and giving it a Legislative Assembly. So option (2) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2024, question 83प्रश्न 83
Consider the following statements about First Lok Sabha : (A) The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after India's First General Elections were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952. (B) The first session of first Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952. (C) The first Lok Sabha lasted its Full tenure and dissolved on 1 April 1957. (D) Shri. G.V. Mavalankar was the First Deputy Speaker of First Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. (A) Only
2. (A) and (B)
3. (B), (C) and (D)
4. (D) Only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (A) and (B)
The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after the 1951-52 elections and held its first sitting on 13 May 1952. It was dissolved on 4 April 1957, not 1 April, and G. V. Mavalankar was its Speaker (M. A. Ayyangar was Deputy Speaker), so only (A) and (B) are correct.
MPSC 2024, question 84प्रश्न 84
Consider the following provision/s with respect to various 'National Commissions' in India. (A) 'National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes' was established under Article 339 of the Constitution of India. (B) The 'National Commission for Women' was established under the 'National Commission for Women Act' 1990. (C) The 'National Commission for Minorities' was established under the 'National Commission for Minorities Act' 1992. (D) On 27th December 1993 an ordinance was passed to establish the 'National Human Rights Commission'. Which of the above provision/s is/are correct ?
1. (A) and (C)
2. (B) and (D)
3. (A) and (D)
4. (B) and (C)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) (B) and (C)
The National Commission for Women was set up under the NCW Act, 1990, and the National Commission for Minorities under the NCM Act, 1992. The SC and ST commissions derive from Article 338 and 338A (Article 339 concerns control of the Union over administration of Scheduled Areas), and the NHRC ordinance was issued in September 1993, so only (B) and (C) are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2024, question 85प्रश्न 85
Which article empowers the High Courts to issue directions for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
1. Article 226
2. Article 135
3. Article 143
4. Article 133
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Article 226
Article 226 empowers every High Court to issue directions, orders and writs, such as habeas corpus and mandamus, for enforcing Fundamental Rights and for other purposes. So option (1) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Fundamental Rights Remedies: The Five Writs
MPSC 2024, question 98प्रश्न 98
Women Reservation Bill - 2023, consider the following statements : (a) Narishakti Vandan Adhiniyam officially the Constitutional (One hundred and twenty eight amendment) bill - 2023 is a bill introduced in the Parliament of India. (b) The Women reservation bill was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Lok Sabha on 10th Sept. 2023. (c) This legislation seeks to allocate 30 percent of the seats in Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies for women. (d) The bill was the first that was considered in the new Parliament building. Select the correct statements from the above.
1. (a) and (d) are correct.
2. (a) and (b) are correct.
3. (a), (b), (c) are correct.
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) and (d) are correct.
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam was introduced as the Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023, and was the first bill taken up in the new Parliament building. It was introduced on 19 September 2023 by Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal, and it reserves one-third (33 percent) of seats, so (b) and (c) are wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2023, question 71प्रश्न 71
Which of the following statement is not included in Article 164 ?
1. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor
2. The Council of Ministers shall not be collectively responsible to the State Legislature
3. The other Minister shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister
4. A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a minister
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) The Council of Ministers shall not be collectively responsible to the State Legislature
Article 164 provides that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State, so the statement that it shall not be responsible is not in the Article. The other three statements are in Article 164, so option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2023, question 72प्रश्न 72
Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if A. A person voluntary acquire the citizenship of some other country. B. A person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for 18 months within five years of his registration. C. The government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud. D. A person has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
1. A, B and C
2. A, C and D
3. B and C
4. A, B, C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) A, C and D
Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, citizenship ends on voluntarily acquiring another country's citizenship, and can be taken away for fraud or disloyalty to the Constitution. Deprivation for imprisonment applies to a sentence of two years within five years of registration or naturalisation, not 18 months, so B is wrong and option (2) is correct.
MPSC 2023, question 73प्रश्न 73
Which of the following is/are correct pair/s with regard to acceptance in the Indian Constitution ? A. America - Post of Vice President B. Canada - The concept of 'Union' for the Central Government C. South Africa - Election method of Rajya Sabha D. Ireland - Nomination method of the members of the Rajya Sabha by the President who have done special work in specific area
1. Only A
2. A and C
3. A, B and D
4. A, B, C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) A, B, C and D
India took the office of Vice-President from the USA, a federation with a strong Centre described as a 'Union' from Canada, election of Rajya Sabha members from South Africa, and nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha from Ireland. All four pairs are correct, option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2023, question 74प्रश्न 74
Which of the following is/are the main objective/s of Committee of Parliament on Official language ? A. To review the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union and to make recommendations to increase the use of Hindi. B. Looking into the linguistic demands for new States and make suggestions in that regard. C. Identify the endangered language and make recommendations to protect and preserve them. D. Examine the vernacular education and make recommendations for effective implementation of the three languages formula.
1. A only
2. B, C and D
3. A and D
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) A only
The Committee of Parliament on Official Language, set up under Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963, reviews progress in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union and reports to the President with recommendations. The other tasks are not its mandate, so option (1).
MPSC 2023, question 75प्रश्न 75
Consider the following statement/s with reference to the President of Zilla Parishad. A. If 1/5th of the total number of members of the Zilla Parishad moves a motion of no confidence and passes it, the President has to resign from office. B. Sudhakarrao Naik's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. C. Vasantrao Naik's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. D. Vasantdada Patil's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. Select the incorrect statements from the above.
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. A and B
4. C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।
MPSC cancelled this question. For reference, the President of a Zilla Parishad in Maharashtra is elected by the elected councillors from among themselves and can be removed by a no-confidence motion passed by the Zilla Parishad.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Samyukta Maharashtra and Local Government
MPSC 2023, question 76प्रश्न 76
Which of the following is/are non-constitutional body/bodies ? I. NITI Aayog II. State Finance Commission III. National Commission for Backward Classes IV. Central Information Commission
1. Only I is correct
2. Only III and IV are correct
3. Only I, III and IV are correct
4. Only I and IV are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only I and IV are correct
NITI Aayog was set up by an executive resolution and the Central Information Commission by the RTI Act, 2005, so both are non-constitutional. The State Finance Commission comes under Article 243-I and the NCBC became constitutional under Article 338B in 2018, so option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2023, question 77प्रश्न 77
Key Provisions of Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Act, 2016 : A. It amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 (which came into force on 16 January 2014). B. It also amended Section 44 of the 2013 Act that deals with the Provision of furnishing details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants. C. Made it compulsory that all States should set up the office of the Lokayukta within one year. D. The Amendment has removed the period of 30 days for furnishing details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
1. A, B and C
2. A, B and D
3. A, C and D
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) A, B and D
The 2016 amendment changed Section 44 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (in force from 16 January 2014) and removed the 30-day deadline, leaving the form and manner of asset declarations to the government. The one-year deadline for states to set up Lokayuktas was in the original 2013 Act, not the 2016 amendment, so option (2).
MPSC 2023, question 78प्रश्न 78
Which of the following is/are a duties of National Commission for Backward Classes ?
1. To enquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes
2. To participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes
3. To discharge other functions in relation to the protection, welfare, development and advancement of socially and educationally backward classes
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above
Article 338B gives the NCBC all three duties: enquiring into complaints of deprivation of rights and safeguards, participating and advising on the socio-economic development of these classes, and other functions for their protection, welfare and advancement. So option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2023, question 79प्रश्न 79
Which of the following pair is incorrect ? National Party of India : Year of establishment
1. Communist Party of India (Marxist) CPI-M - 1964
2. Communist Party of India (CPI) - 1926
3. Bahujan Samaj Party (B.S.P.) - 1984
4. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) - 1998
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Communist Party of India (CPI) - 1926
The Communist Party of India was formally founded at Kanpur in December 1925, not 1926. The CPI(M) split away in 1964, Kanshi Ram founded the BSP in 1984 and Mamata Banerjee formed the AITC in 1998, so option (2) is the incorrect pair.
MPSC 2023, question 80प्रश्न 80
Match the pairs correctly. A. Part - I : i. Fundamental Rights B. Part - III : ii. Panchayat Raj C. Part - IX : iii. Citizenship D. Part - II : iv. The Union and its territory (answer order: A B C D)
1. iv ii iii i
2. iii i ii iv
3. ii iii i iv
4. iv i ii iii
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) iv i ii iii
Part I deals with the Union and its territory, Part II with citizenship, Part III with Fundamental Rights and Part IX with the Panchayats. So A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii, option (4).
MPSC 2023, question 81प्रश्न 81
Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in Schedule - V
1. may be altered by the Governor
2. may be altered by the President
3. may be altered by the Parliament by Constitutional Amendment requiring special majority
4. may be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislation
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) may be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislation
Paragraph 7 of the Fifth Schedule lets Parliament amend the Schedule by ordinary law, and such a law is not treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368. So option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
MPSC 2023, question 83प्रश्न 83
Consider the following statements regarding 'Zero Hour' of Lok Sabha : A. The time immediately following the question hour and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the house has come to be known as the zero hour. B. For raising matters during the zero hour members has to give notice between 8.00 a.m. to 9.30 a.m. everyday to the Speaker. C. At present, thirty matters per day as per their priority are allowed to be raised during zero hour. D. There is no maximum limit on the number of matters that can be raised on any given day as there is no provision in rules about Zero Hour. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
1. A and B
2. A, B and D
3. B, C and D
4. A and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) A and D
Zero Hour is the informal time after Question Hour and the laying of papers, before listed business begins, and it is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Under the Speaker's practice about 20 matters, not thirty, are taken up a day, and the official MPSC key accepts only A and D, option (4).
MPSC 2023, question 84प्रश्न 84
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the legal relationship between the Central and State Government in India ? A. The subject of transfer of property other than agricultural land is included in the Concurrent List. B. The subject of wealth tax on property other than agricultural land is included in the Union List. C. The subject of entertainment tax is included in the Concurrent List. D. The subject of 'Antiquities Museum' is included in the State List.
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) A, B and D
Transfer of non-agricultural property is in the Concurrent List, taxes on the capital value of assets other than agricultural land are in the Union List, and museums and ancient monuments not of national importance are in the State List. Taxes on entertainment are a State List subject, so C is wrong and option (3) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
MPSC 2023, question 85प्रश्न 85
After the extensive discussion in the Constituent Assembly, the following provisions was/were included. Which Article does not include ? I. Fundamental duties under Art. 51A II. Constitutional Amendment under Art. 368 III. National emergency under Art. 352 IV. Ordinance under Art. 123
1. Only I correct
2. Only II correct
3. All of the above are correct
4. None of the above are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only I correct
Articles 368, 352 and 123 were part of the Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, but Article 51A on Fundamental Duties was added later by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. So only I was not included, option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2022, question 34प्रश्न 34
Which of the following statements is/are correct about National Commission for Scheduled Tribes [NCST] ? (a) It is a constitutional body which came into existence in 2004. (b) Its function is to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of Scheduled Tribes. (c) It works to improve literacy rate of Tribal community. (d) Its function is to facilitate women empowerment of Tribal women.
1. Only (a)
2. Only (a) and (b)
3. Only (a), (b) and (c)
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above
The NCST is a constitutional body under Article 338A, set up in 2004 after the 89th Amendment; it inquires into complaints about ST rights and safeguards and advises on their socio-economic development, including education and the welfare of tribal women. The official MPSC key gives option (4), all of the above.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2022, question 56प्रश्न 56
"Directive Principles is a novel feature in a constitution framed for parliamentary democracy. They have no binding force. But whoever captures power will not be free to do what he likes with it. He will have to respect the Directive Principles. He cannot ignore them. He may not have to answer for their breach in a court of law, but he will certainly have to answer for them before the electorate at election time." Who said this ?
1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
2. B.N. Rao
3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
4. K.M. Munshi
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar said this in the Constituent Assembly, describing the Directive Principles as a novel feature whose breach would have to be answered before the electorate. Option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2022, question 57प्रश्न 57
Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India : (a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President. (b) He draws the same salary as a Supreme Court Judge. (c) Before entering upon his office, he swears an oath or affirmation before the Chief Justice of India. (d) He may be removed by the President only after an enquiry by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. Only (a) and (c)
4. Only (b) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b)
The CAG does not hold office at the President's pleasure; he is removed like a Supreme Court judge, by an address of both Houses of Parliament, not after a Supreme Court enquiry, and he takes his oath before the President. His salary equals that of a Supreme Court judge, so only (b) is correct, option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2022, question 58प्रश्न 58
Who among the following was the first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women ?
1. Jayanti Patnaik
2. Dr. Poornima Advani
3. Dr. V. Mohini Giri
4. Vibha Parthasarthy
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Jayanti Patnaik
The National Commission for Women was set up in January 1992 under the NCW Act, 1990, with Jayanti Patnaik as its first chairperson. Option (1).
MPSC 2022, question 59प्रश्न 59
Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament of India to create or abolish Legislative Councils, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect ?
1. Article 168
2. Article 167
3. Article 166
4. Article 169
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Article 169
Article 169 lets Parliament, by ordinary law, abolish or create a State Legislative Council if the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution by a special majority. Option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2022, question 60प्रश्न 60
According to the provision of which Article of the Constitution can the President of India ask for advice from the Supreme Court ?
1. Article 142
2. Article 145
3. Article 147
4. Article 143
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Article 143
Article 143 gives the President power to refer a question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion. Option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2022, question 61प्रश्न 61
Which of the following provisions were made by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 ? (a) Provided for the creation of the All India Judicial Service. (b) Empowered the President to send back once, the advice of the Cabinet for reconsideration. (c) Provided that the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 20 and Article 21 cannot be suspended during the National Emergency. (d) Shifted five subjects from the State list to the Concurrent list.
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. Only (c) and (d)
4. Only (b) and (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (b) and (c)
The 44th Amendment let the President return Cabinet advice once for reconsideration and protected Articles 20 and 21 from suspension during an emergency. The All India Judicial Service provision and the shift of five subjects to the Concurrent List came from the 42nd Amendment (1976). Option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2022, question 62प्रश्न 62
Which of the following committees contains representatives of both the Houses of the Parliament ? (a) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (b) Committee on Empowerment of Women (c) Business Advisory Committee (d) Committee on Privileges (e) Estimates Committee
1. (a), (b) and (d)
2. Only (b) and (c)
3. (c), (d) and (e)
4. Only (a) and (b)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (a) and (b)
The Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs and the Committee on Empowerment of Women are joint committees with members from both Houses. The Business Advisory Committee and the Committee on Privileges are separate for each House, and the Estimates Committee has only Lok Sabha members. Option (4).
MPSC 2022, question 63प्रश्न 63
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SC) is constituted by which Article of the Constitution ?
1. Article 337
2. Article 338
3. Article 336
4. Article 335
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Article 338
Article 338 provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes; Article 338A provides for the separate commission for Scheduled Tribes. Option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2022, question 64प्रश्न 64
On 13th December, 1946 ________ moved the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly of India.
1. Sucheta Kripalani
2. Sarojini Naidu
3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946; it was adopted on 22 January 1947 and later shaped the Preamble. Option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2022, question 65प्रश्न 65
Consider the following statements : (a) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once, including any departmental proceedings. (b) The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence. (c) The protection against self-incrimination extends to both criminal and civil proceedings.
1. Statement (a) is correct
2. Statement (b) is correct
3. Statements (a) and (b) are correct
4. Statements (a) and (c) are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Statement (b) is correct
Under Article 20, the bar on double jeopardy applies only to prosecution before a court, not to departmental proceedings, and the right against self-incrimination applies only in criminal proceedings. It does cover both oral and documentary evidence, so only (b) is correct, option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2022, question 66प्रश्न 66
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option : (a) The special provisions for Nagaland are made in Article 371 (A). (b) No act of the Parliament in respect to the religious or social practices of Nagas can be applied without the approval of the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland. (c) Tuensang is the most developed district of Nagaland.
1. Statements (a) and (b) are correct
2. Only statement (a) is correct
3. Statements (a) and (c) are correct
4. All the statements are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Statements (a) and (b) are correct
Article 371A gives Nagaland special status: no Act of Parliament on Naga religious or social practices, customary law or land applies there unless the State Assembly so decides. Tuensang is a backward district for which the article makes special arrangements, so (c) is wrong. Option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2022, question 67प्रश्न 67
Which of the following is not a Panchsheel principle of India's foreign policy ?
1. Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty
2. Mutual non-interference
3. Peaceful coexistence
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) None of the above
The Panchsheel (1954) principles are mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence. All three listed are Panchsheel principles, so the answer is option (4), none of the above.
MPSC 2022, question 68प्रश्न 68
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option : (a) The subject, 'Co-operative Societies' has been included in the Constitution of India by the 97th Amendment in 2011. (b) The right to establish 'Co-operative Societies' is given in Article 19(1)(c). (c) The first law related to Co-operative Societies in India was passed in the tenure of Lord Curzon.
1. (a) and (c) are correct
2. (b) and (c) are correct
3. (a) and (b) are correct
4. All the three statements are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All the three statements are correct
The 97th Amendment (2011) added co-operative societies to Article 19(1)(c), added Article 43B and inserted Part IXB; India's first co-operative law, the Co-operative Credit Societies Act of 1904, was passed under Lord Curzon. All three are correct, option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2022, question 69प्रश्न 69
Which one of the following statements about dismissal or removal of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or State (Article 311) is not correct ?
1. Protection under Article 311 is not available to military personnel.
2. The employees of statutory corporations such as the LIC, ONGC are not entitled to the protection of Article 311.
3. The provisions of Article 311 are applicable to permanent civil servants only and not to temporary servants.
4. Suspension of government servant from service is neither dismissal nor removal and is not within the scope of protection of Article 311.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) The provisions of Article 311 are applicable to permanent civil servants only and not to temporary servants.
Article 311 protects all persons holding civil posts under the Union or a State, temporary as well as permanent employees, so statement (3) is incorrect. The other three statements are accepted positions. Option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2022, question 70प्रश्न 70
Consider the following statements : (a) A panel of Chairpersons is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. (b) A member of the panel of Chairpersons can preside over the Lok Sabha when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant. (c) In absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker and member of the panel of Chairpersons, the Speaker's duties are to be performed by a member appointed by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. (a) and (c)
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) None of the above
The panel of chairpersons is nominated by the Speaker, not elected; its members cannot preside when the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker is vacant (the President then appoints a member to perform the duties); and when all are merely absent, the House itself decides who presides. None of the statements is correct, option (4).
MPSC 2022, question 85प्रश्न 85
Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is related with which of the following subjects ?
1. Temple entry
2. Homosexuality
3. Adultery
4. Surrogacy
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Homosexuality
Section 377 of the IPC dealt with 'unnatural offences' and was used to criminalise homosexual acts; in Navtej Singh Johar (2018) the Supreme Court decriminalised consensual same-sex relations between adults. Adultery was Section 497. Option (2).
MPSC 2021, question 71प्रश्न 71
The Constitution 105th amendment act, 2021 related to the socially and educationally backward classes, amends __________ articles of Indian Constitution.
1. two
2. four
3. five
4. three
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) three
The 105th Amendment Act, 2021 restored the power of states to identify socially and educationally backward classes by amending three articles: 338B, 342A and 366. That is option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2021, question 72प्रश्न 72
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to 'Right against exploitation' ?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Freedom as to payment of taxes and the promotion of any particular religion
3. Protection of interests of minorities
4. Equality before law
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23 and 24) prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and forced labour, and child labour in hazardous work. The other options belong to the rights to religion, cultural rights and equality. That is option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2021, question 73प्रश्न 73
Who among the following is not directly participating in the election of President ? (a) The elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. (b) The elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the State. (c) The elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the union territories of Delhi and Puducherry. (d) Both elected and nominated members of the state legislative councils. Answer Options :
1. (a), (b)
2. (b), (c)
3. (d)
4. (a), (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (d)
The electoral college for the President (Article 54) consists of elected MPs of both Houses and elected MLAs of the states, Delhi and Puducherry; members of state legislative councils have no vote. That is option (3).
MPSC 2021, question 74प्रश्न 74
Consider the following statements regarding District Judges : (a) The appointment of District Judge is made by Chief Justice of High Court. (b) The Chief Minister has the authority to transfer the District Judge. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. (a) and (b)
4. Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Under Article 233, district judges are appointed, posted and promoted by the Governor in consultation with the High Court, not by the Chief Justice, and the Chief Minister has no power to transfer them. Neither statement is correct, option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2021, question 75प्रश्न 75
Match the following pairs List "A" with List "B". List - A : List - B (a) Single Citizenship : (i) United Kingdom (UK) (b) Judicial Review : (ii) America (USA) (c) Directive Principles of State Policy : (iii) Ireland (d) Concurrent list in Union-State Relation : (iv) Australia Answer Options :
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
The Indian Constitution borrowed single citizenship from the UK, judicial review from the USA, the Directive Principles from Ireland and the Concurrent List from Australia. That is option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
MPSC 2021, question 76प्रश्न 76
When was the word 'Armed Rebellion' added to the Constitution to declare a National Emergency ?
1. By 44th Constitution Amendment Act
2. By 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
3. By 40th Constitution Amendment Act
4. By 38th Constitution Amendment Act
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) By 44th Constitution Amendment Act
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' as a ground for proclaiming a National Emergency under Article 352. That is option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2021, question 77प्रश्न 77
Consider the following statements : (a) The President may return an ordinary bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. (b) The President may return the money bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. (c) If an ordinary bill is passed again by the Parliament, the President must give his assent to the bill. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (c)
4. None of above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a) and (c)
Under Article 111 the President can return an ordinary bill once for reconsideration, and if Parliament passes it again he is bound to give assent; a money bill cannot be returned. That is option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2021, question 78प्रश्न 78
Consider the following statements regarding with Comptroller and Auditor General of India : (a) He is appointed by the President of India. (b) His salary and other service conditions are determined by Parliament. (c) He can be removed by Prime Minister any time. (d) He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a), (b) and (d)
The CAG is appointed by the President, his salary and service conditions are fixed by Parliament, and he acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee. He can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge, not by the Prime Minister, so the answer is option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2021, question 79प्रश्न 79
Consider the following statements : (a) Legislative Council is a Permanent Chamber. (b) The Governor is the ex-officio chairman of Legislative Council. (c) Except few nominated members the members of Legislative council are indirectly elected. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (c)
4. None of above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a) and (c)
A State Legislative Council is a permanent house not subject to dissolution, and apart from about one-sixth nominated by the Governor its members are indirectly elected. Its Chairman is elected by the members from among themselves, not the Governor, so the answer is option (3).
MPSC 2021, question 80प्रश्न 80
The Jammu and Kashmir State Human Rights Commission ceased to exist from __________.
1. 31st October 2019
2. 15th August 2019
3. 31st December 2019
4. 1st January 2020
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 31st October 2019
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 the state became two union territories on 31 October 2019, and bodies such as the State Human Rights Commission were wound up from that date. That is option (1).
MPSC 2021, question 81प्रश्न 81
According to the 74th amendment act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution there are __________ types of Municipalities in urban India.
1. two
2. three
3. four
4. five
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) three
Article 243Q, inserted by the 74th Amendment, provides for three types of municipalities: Nagar Panchayats for transitional areas, Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas and Municipal Corporations for larger urban areas. That is option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2021, question 82प्रश्न 82
Maharashtra Legislative Council completed its 50 years of existence in __________.
1. 1990
2. 2010
3. 1987
4. 2000
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) 1987
The Legislative Council of the then Bombay Province first met in 1937 under the Government of India Act 1935, so the Maharashtra Legislative Council marked 50 years in 1987. The official MPSC key gives option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Samyukta Maharashtra and Local Government
MPSC 2021, question 83प्रश्न 83
Forms of Oaths or Affirmations are included in the __________ schedule of the Indian Constitution.
1. tenth
2. sixth
3. third
4. first
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) third
The Third Schedule contains the forms of oaths or affirmations for ministers, legislators, judges and other office holders. That is option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
MPSC 2021, question 84प्रश्न 84
When was the Communist Party of India Marxist (CPI-M) formed ?
1. 1956
2. 1986
3. 1946
4. 1964
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 1964
The CPI(M) was formed in 1964 after a split in the Communist Party of India. That is option (4).
MPSC 2021, question 85प्रश्न 85
Consider the following statements regarding with speaker of Lok Sabha : (a) He hold office during the pleasure of the President. (b) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election. (c) He Presides over a joint sitting of the two houses of Parliament. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
1. Only (a)
2. (a) and (b)
3. Only (c)
4. (b) and (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (c)
The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its own members and can be removed only by a resolution of the House, not at the President's pleasure; under Article 118 the Speaker presides over a joint sitting. Only (c) is correct, option (3).
MPSC 2021, question 91प्रश्न 91
Jains were also added in the list of minorities as classified by the Union Government. In this regard consider the following statements : (a) Now there are six designated minority communities in the country. (b) A Constitutional Amendment passed by the Parliament with simple majority is required to bring any community in the list of minorities. (c) The Ministry of Minority Affairs of the Government of India established in 2009. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (a) and (b)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a)
With Jains notified in 2014, India has six notified minority communities: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Jains. Communities are notified by the Centre under the National Commission for Minorities Act, not by constitutional amendment, and the Ministry of Minority Affairs was created in 2006, so the answer is option (1).
MPSC 2020, question 71प्रश्न 71
Which of the following statements are true about the Cabinet Secretariat ? (a) It came into existence in 1950. (b) It operates under the direction of Prime Minister. (c) It is a Line agency. (d) It functions as the Chief coordinating agency in the Central Government.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (b) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (b) and (d)
The Cabinet Secretariat works directly under the Prime Minister and acts as the chief coordinating body among ministries of the central government. It is a staff agency, not a line agency, and it dates from 1947, so the answer is (b) and (d), option (3).
MPSC 2020, question 72प्रश्न 72
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code. (a) In India, a constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior permission of the President. (b) In U.S.A., every constitutional amendment must be ratified by at least two-thirds of the state legislature. (c) In Switzerland, no alteration of the constitution can be effected without resorting to a referendum. (d) In Australia, the constitution can be altered only by an Act passed by an absolute majority in both houses.
1. (a), (b), (c)
2. (b), (c), (d)
3. Only (a) and (b)
4. Only (c) and (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (c) and (d)
Under Article 368 an amendment bill in India needs no prior permission of the President, and in the USA an amendment must be ratified by three-fourths of the states, not two-thirds, so (a) and (b) are wrong. Swiss constitutional changes require a referendum, and the official MPSC key gives option (4), (c) and (d).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
MPSC 2020, question 73प्रश्न 73
Consider the following statements regarding the position of the Speaker of Lok Sabha. (a) His/her salary and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. (b) He/she has no vote except in case of a tie. (c) He/she can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of the members present and voting in the house. (d) He/she has a higher rank than Deputy Prime Minister. Which of the above statements are correct ?
1. (a), (b), (c)
2. (b), (c), (d)
3. (a) and (b)
4. All above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a) and (b)
The Speaker's salary is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and the Speaker votes only to break a tie. Removal needs a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (effective majority), not just those present and voting, and in the order of precedence the Speaker ranks below the Deputy Prime Minister. So only (a) and (b) are correct, option (3).
MPSC 2020, question 74प्रश्न 74
Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched ? (a) Calling attention Motion - To draw attention of the Minister on matters of urgent public importance. (b) Adjournment Motion - To adjourn the House before the expiry of the time. (c) Privilege Motion - To draw attention of the Speaker towards when the proceedings of the House do not follow rules of procedure. (d) Point of Order - To draw attention of the Speaker towards incorrect/incomplete answer by a Minister.
1. (a), (b)
2. (a), (c)
3. (b), (c), (d)
4. (a), (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) (b), (c), (d)
A calling attention motion is correctly described. An adjournment motion is moved to set aside normal business and discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance, a privilege motion concerns a breach of parliamentary privilege such as a minister giving wrong facts, and a point of order is raised when proceedings break the rules. So (b), (c) and (d) are wrongly matched, option (3).
MPSC 2020, question 75प्रश्न 75
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
1. No bills for the formation of new state shall be introduced in either house of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President.
2. The President before introducing the bill in the Parliament shall refer it to the concerned State Legislature for its views within a specified time limit.
3. Parliament can form a new state only by a law passed by a special majority.
4. The Parliament is not bound to accept the views (opinion) of the State Legislature.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Parliament can form a new state only by a law passed by a special majority.
Under Articles 3 and 4, a law forming a new state is passed by a simple majority and is not treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368. The other statements, on the President's recommendation, reference to the state legislature and Parliament not being bound by its views, are correct. So statement (3) is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2020, question 76प्रश्न 76
Which of the following statements regarding Central Information Commission is correct ?
1. It is a constitutional body includes one Chief Information Commissioner and not more than Five Information Commissioners (ICs).
2. The CIC and ICs are appointed by the President on the recommendation of committee headed by the Home Minister.
3. They hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years.
4. They are not eligible for reappointment, but Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner but cannot hold office for more than a total of five years including his term as Information Commissioner.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) They are not eligible for reappointment, but Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner but cannot hold office for more than a total of five years including his term as Information Commissioner.
The Central Information Commission is a statutory body under the RTI Act 2005 with up to ten Information Commissioners, appointed on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister, and the age limit was 65, not 70. The Act bars reappointment and lets an Information Commissioner become Chief Information Commissioner within a total of five years, so statement (4) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
MPSC 2020, question 77प्रश्न 77
The situations that leads to 'Judicial Activism' are : (a) When the legislatures fails to discharge its responsibilities. (b) In case of hung legislature where the government is very weak and instable. (c) When the government fail to protect the basic rights of the citizens. (d) When the party in power misuses the courts of law for ulterior motives.
1. (a), (b), (c)
2. (b), (c), (d)
3. All above
4. Only (b) and (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) All above
Judicial activism grows when the legislature fails in its duties, when a hung legislature produces a weak and unstable government, when the government fails to protect citizens' basic rights, and when the ruling party misuses the courts for its own ends. All four are such situations, option (3).
MPSC 2020, question 78प्रश्न 78
Consider the following provisions. (a) The residuary powers have been left with the centre. (b) The powers divided between states and the central government. (c) President enjoys absolute veto over state bills. (d) The Union can change the name, area and boundary of a state without its consent. Which of the above, if absent, would make the Indian Constitution more Federal in nature ?
1. (a) only
2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. All above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a), (c) and (d)
Residuary powers with the Centre, the President's absolute veto over state bills reserved for him, and Parliament's power to change a state's name, area or boundary without its consent are all unitary features. Division of powers between Centre and states is itself a federal feature, so removing (a), (c) and (d) would make the Constitution more federal, option (2).
MPSC 2020, question 79प्रश्न 79
Which one of the following matters stands excluded from the jurisdiction of Inter-state council in India ?
1. Enquiring into and advice upon disputes which may have arisen between the states.
2. Adjudication of any dispute with respect to the use, distribution or control of water of any inter-state river.
3. Investigation and discussion of subjects in which some or all of the states or the Union and one or more states, have common interest.
4. Making recommendation on any such subject and in particular, recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Adjudication of any dispute with respect to the use, distribution or control of water of any inter-state river.
Article 263 lets the Inter-State Council inquire into and advise on disputes between states, discuss subjects of common interest and recommend better coordination. Adjudication of inter-state river water disputes falls under Article 262 and is done by tribunals set up under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, so option (2) is excluded.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2020, question 80प्रश्न 80
Which one of the following statements about 'Privilege Committee' is not correct ?
1. Rule No. 222 of the Lok Sabha and 187 of the Rajya Sabha governs privilege.
2. In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a Committee of Privileges consisting of 15 members.
3. In the Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Chairperson heads the Committee of Privileges, that consists of 15 members.
4. None of the above.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) In the Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Chairperson heads the Committee of Privileges, that consists of 15 members.
The Rajya Sabha Committee of Privileges is headed by the Deputy Chairman but has 10 members, not 15. The Lok Sabha committee of 15 members is nominated by the Speaker, and privilege matters are governed by Rule 222 in the Lok Sabha and Rule 187 in the Rajya Sabha. So statement (3) is incorrect.
MPSC 2020, question 81प्रश्न 81
Consider the following statements about 'National Youth Policy'. (a) The First National Youth Policy was adopted in 1986. (b) In the 2003 policy, 'Youth' was defined as a person of age between 15-35. (c) In the 2014 policy, the youth age-group is defined as 15-29 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Only (a)
2. (a) and (b)
3. (b) and (c)
4. Only (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (c)
The first National Youth Policy was adopted in 1988, and the 2003 policy defined youth as persons aged 13 to 35. The National Youth Policy 2014 defines youth as those aged 15 to 29, so only (c) is correct, option (4).
MPSC 2020, question 82प्रश्न 82
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (a) Article-111 of the constitution deals with the definition of money bills. (b) A bill categorised as financial bill under Article-117(3) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (c) A bill categorised as financial bill under Article-117(1) cannot be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha.
1. Only (a)
2. (b) and (c)
3. None of the above
4. Only (c)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) None of the above
Money bills are defined in Article 110, while Article 111 deals with assent to bills. A financial bill under Article 117(3) can be introduced in either House, and a financial bill under Article 117(1), though introduced only in the Lok Sabha, can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. So none of the statements is correct, option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2020, question 83प्रश्न 83
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
1. Under Article 200, the Governor may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.
2. President may direct the Governor to return the bill for the reconsideration of the State Legislature.
3. If the bill is passed again by the State Legislature with or without amendments and presented again to the President for his assent, the President is bound to give his assent to the bill.
4. The constitution has not prescribed any time limit within which the President has to take decision with regard to a bill reserved by Governor for his consideration.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) If the bill is passed again by the State Legislature with or without amendments and presented again to the President for his assent, the President is bound to give his assent to the bill.
Under Article 201, when a reserved state bill is passed again after reconsideration and sent back, the President is not bound to give assent and may still withhold it. The other statements are correct, so statement (3) is the wrong one.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2020, question 84प्रश्न 84
Which of the following has been wrongly listed as criteria for appointment as a judge of the High Court ?
1. He must have been held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years.
2. He must have been an advocate of a High Court for ten years.
3. He must, in the opinion of the President, be a distinguished jurist.
4. None of the above.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) He must, in the opinion of the President, be a distinguished jurist.
Article 217 requires a High Court judge to have held judicial office in India for ten years or to have been a High Court advocate for ten years. Being a distinguished jurist in the President's opinion is a qualification only for Supreme Court judges under Article 124, so option (3) is wrongly listed.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2020, question 85प्रश्न 85
'No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the state or receiving aid out of state funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.' This provision is contained in which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution ?
1. 30
2. 16
3. 28
4. 29
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 29
This is Article 29(2), part of the cultural and educational rights in Part III. Article 30 deals with the right of minorities to set up educational institutions. So the answer is option (4), Article 29.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
MPSC 2020, question 93प्रश्न 93
Select the correct statements about Whip in India : (a) Whip is responsible for the party's discipline and behaviour in the house of legislature. (b) India inherited this concept from the British Parliamentary System. (c) There can be chief whip, assisted by additional whips. (d) In presidential elections whips cannot direct a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) to vote in a particular fashion.
1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
2. (a), (b), (c)
3. (a), (c)
4. (a), (b), (d)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
A whip enforces party discipline in the House, the office comes from British parliamentary practice, parties have a chief whip assisted by other whips, and whips cannot be issued for presidential elections, which use a secret ballot. All four statements are correct, option (1).

Questions and answer keys are published by the Maharashtra Public Service Commission (mpsc.gov.in). Explanations are written by IndiaDigital; if one looks wrong, use the report link under it.प्रश्न और उत्तर-कुंजियाँ महाराष्ट्र लोक सेवा आयोग (mpsc.gov.in) द्वारा प्रकाशित हैं। व्याख्याएँ IndiaDigital ने लिखी हैं; कोई गलत लगे तो उसके नीचे दिए लिंक से बताइए।

MPSC prelims Polity: previous year questionsMPSC प्रीलिम्स राजव्यवस्था: पिछले वर्षों के प्रश्न

Menu

Explore

Language · भाषा

Questionsप्रश्न