Maharashtra Civil Services Gazetted Combined Preliminary Examination 2025, Paper 1

Series A. Questions and answers from the official MPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक MPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real MPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

The book, 'Jatibhed Viveksar' was written by ______.
1. Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
2. Tukaram Tatya Padval
3. Vitthal Ramji Shinde
4. Bhaurao Paigonda Patil
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Tukaram Tatya Padval
'Jatibhed Viveksar' (1861), a critique of the caste system, was written by Tukaram Tatya Padval, an associate of Jyotiba Phule. The official MPSC key gives option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra
Who were the Prime Ministers of India and China while accepting the Panchashil Principles ? A. Pandit Nehru and Zhou Enlaay B. Pandit Nehru and Dr. San-Yat-Sen C. Indira Gandhi and Mao-Tse-Tung D. Pandit Nehru and Mao-Tse-Tung
1. A and B
2. C and A
3. C and D
4. Only A
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only A
The Panchsheel principles were adopted in the 1954 India-China agreement, when Jawaharlal Nehru and Zhou Enlai were the Prime Ministers. Mao Zedong was the Chairman, not the Premier, of China, so only A is correct.
The book 'Vidhava Vapan Anachar' was written by ______.
1. Vyankatesh Rango Katti
2. Vishnushastri Pandit
3. Balshastri Jambhekar
4. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Vyankatesh Rango Katti
'Vidhava Vapan Anachar', a work against the custom of tonsuring widows, was written by Vyankatesh Rango Katti. The official MPSC key gives option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra
On 11th April 1942, a resolution was passed by the Congress Working Committee rejecting ______.
1. Cripps Proposal
2. Aligarh Scheme
3. Curzon Plan
4. Latifs Scheme
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Cripps Proposal
The Cripps Mission of March-April 1942 offered dominion status after the war. The Congress Working Committee rejected the Cripps proposals by its resolution of 11 April 1942.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
In order to appease the moderates and win over the support of the Muslims, the British Government introduced the ______ through the Indian Councils Act, 1909.
1. Morley-Minto Reforms
2. Montague Chelmsford Reforms
3. Indian Educational Reforms
4. Indian Civil Service Reforms
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Morley-Minto Reforms
The Indian Councils Act, 1909 is known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, after Secretary of State John Morley and Viceroy Lord Minto. It enlarged the councils to please the Moderates and gave separate electorates to Muslims.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
"Reformers have to face opposition from our near and dear ones - parents, wives, daughters and countrymen with whom we have to travel through life." This was said by the social reformer Wamanrao Madhavrao Kolhatkar, who hailed from ______.
1. Vidarbha
2. Marathwada
3. Pune
4. Kolhapur
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Vidarbha
Wamanrao Madhavrao Kolhatkar was a social reformer and public worker from Vidarbha (Nagpur region). The official MPSC key gives option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra
Match the following Kings and their dynasties. A. Aparajita : I. Pallava B. Aditya - I : II. Chola C. Vijayalaya : III. Founder of Chola dynasty D. Bhoja - I : IV. Gurjara
1. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
2. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
3. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
4. A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
Aparajita was the last important Pallava ruler, Aditya I was a Chola king, Vijayalaya founded the imperial Chola line in the 9th century, and Bhoja I (Mihira Bhoja) was a Gurjara-Pratihara king. So A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV.
Which of the following statements are correct about Krishnadevaraya ? a. Ruler of Vijayanagar Empire Krishnadevaraya wrote 'Amuktamalyada' epic poem. b. Took title as 'Andhra Bhoja', 'Abhinava Bhoja'. c. Peddana was a prominent Telugu poet in the court of Krishnadevaraya. d. Krishnadevaraya was from Sangama dynasty.
1. Only a and b
2. Only b and c
3. Only a, b and c
4. Only b, c and d
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only a, b and c
Krishnadevaraya wrote the Telugu poem 'Amuktamalyada', was called 'Andhra Bhoja', and had the poet Allasani Peddana in his court. He belonged to the Tuluva dynasty, not the Sangama dynasty, so d is wrong.
To become a member of ______; "Person had to eat bread prepared by Christians and drink water at the hands of Muslims".
1. Brahmo Samaj
2. Arya Samaj
3. Prarthana Samaj
4. Satyashodhak Samaj
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Prarthana Samaj
Breaking caste taboos by eating bread baked by a Christian and drinking water from a Muslim was an initiation test in the Bombay reform circle (the Paramahansa Mandali) out of which the Prarthana Samaj grew. The official MPSC key gives option (3), Prarthana Samaj.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social and Religious Reform Movements
Match the correct pairs of punishment and forms of punishment in the Mughal Judicial System. Column 'A' (Punishment) : Column 'B' (Forms of Punishment) a. Hadd : i. Tit for Tat b. Tazir : ii. Defamation, to expose to disgrace c. Qisas : iii. Warning, admonish or banishment d. Tashir : iv. Death penalty, amputation
1. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
2. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
3. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
4. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Hadd were fixed severe punishments such as death or amputation, Tazir were discretionary punishments like warnings or banishment, Qisas was retaliation in kind, and Tashir was public disgrace. So a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.
Which of the following books was published by combining four famous speeches delivered by Barrister Chittaranjan Das in 1917 ?
1. Indians of India
2. India for Indians
3. India and Indians
4. Indians for India
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) India for Indians
Four well-known speeches given by C. R. Das in 1917 were collected and published as the book 'India for Indians'. The official MPSC key gives option (2).
Who was the Lieutenant General who played a guiding role in the merger of Hyderabad State ?
1. K. M. Cariappa
2. Rajendra Singh
3. S. M. Srinagesh
4. Sir Robert Lockhart
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Rajendra Singh
Operation Polo (September 1948), which ended the Nizam's resistance, was directed by Lieutenant General Maharaj Rajendrasinhji (Rajendra Singh), head of the Army's Southern Command. The official MPSC key gives option (2).
Mughal Emperor Akbar bestowed the title of "Khan-e-Khanan" to whom in A. D. 1584 ?
1. Abul Fazal
2. Miya Tansen
3. Abdul Rahim
4. Hakim Humam
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Abdul Rahim
Abdul Rahim, son of Bairam Khan, received the title Khan-i-Khanan from Akbar in 1584 after his victory in Gujarat. He is also remembered as the poet Rahim.
In 1877, 'The Great Delhi Darbar' was held, who described it as, 'An Indian Parliament' ?
1. M. G. Ranade
2. K. T. Telang
3. S. H. Chiplunkar
4. G. V. Joshi
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) G. V. Joshi
Ganesh Vasudev Joshi (Sarvajanik Kaka) of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha attended the 1877 Delhi Darbar and used it to press for Indian representation. The official MPSC key gives option (4), G. V. Joshi.
Who set up the separate department called, 'diwan-i-amir-i-kohi' ?
1. Alauddin Khalji
2. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
3. Balban
4. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Muhammad bin Tughlaq created the Diwan-i-Amir-i-Kohi, a separate department of agriculture meant to bring more land under cultivation in the Doab.
The Tropic of Cancer is going through which States of India ?
1. Gujarat - Madhya Pradesh - Tripura - Mizoram
2. Gujarat - Maharashtra - West Bengal - Tripura
3. Maharashtra - Bihar - West Bengal - Mizoram
4. Gujarat - Bihar - Tripura - West Bengal
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Gujarat - Madhya Pradesh - Tripura - Mizoram
The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. It does not pass through Maharashtra or Bihar, so only option (1) fits.
Match the following. Biosphere Reserve : Establishment Year a. Nilgiri : I. 2011 b. Sundarban : II. 2008 c. Kutch : III. 1989 d. Panna : IV. 1986
1. a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
2. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
3. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
4. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Nilgiri was India's first biosphere reserve (1986), Sundarban was declared in 1989, Great Rann of Kutch in 2008 and Panna in 2011. So a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Biosphere Reserves of India
Match the following. River Confluence : Rivers a. Prakashe : I. Tapi-Panzara b. Mudavad : II. Tapi-Gomati c. Mahuli : III. Bhima-Indrayani d. Tulapur : IV. Krishna-Venna
1. a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
2. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
3. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
4. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Prakashe (Nandurbar) lies at the Tapi-Gomai confluence and Mudavad (Dhule) at the Tapi-Panzara confluence. Mahuli near Satara is the Krishna-Venna sangam and Tulapur near Pune is the Bhima-Indrayani sangam, giving a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Dams and Rivers of Maharashtra
According to the 2011 census, which Union Territory has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
1. Chandigarh
2. Lakshadweep
3. Dadra-Nagar Haveli
4. Delhi
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Lakshadweep
In the 2011 Census, about 94.8 percent of Lakshadweep's population was Scheduled Tribe, the highest share among Union Territories. Chandigarh and Delhi have no notified Scheduled Tribes.
According to the 2011 census of India, the State of Rajasthan had the lowest literacy rate of ______.
1. 55.42%
2. 61.8%
3. 66.11%
4. 65.39%
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) 66.11%
The final 2011 Census figure for the literacy rate of Rajasthan is 66.11 percent, among the lowest of Indian states. The official MPSC key gives option (3).
Which one of the following statements is false ?
1. The Northern tip of main land India is Defdar in Ladakh.
2. The Southern tip of main land India is Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu.
3. The Eastern tip of main land India is Kibithu in Assam.
4. The Western tip of main land India is Ghuar mota in Gujarat.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) The Eastern tip of main land India is Kibithu in Assam.
Kibithu, the easternmost point of mainland India, is in the Anjaw district of Arunachal Pradesh, not Assam. So statement (3) is false.
______ Monsoon winds blow in Maharashtra from June to September.
1. South east
2. North west
3. South west
4. North east
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) South west
From June to September, Maharashtra receives rain from the South West monsoon winds blowing in from the Arabian Sea.
Consider the following statements. a. The temperature of the troposphere generally decreases with increasing altitude. b. The troposphere is heated not by absorption of incoming short wave solar radiation but by transfer of heat from the earth's surface. Now state whether :
1. Both the statements are correct and second is the correct explanation of the first
2. Neither of the statements is correct
3. Both the statements are correct, but the second is not the correct explanation of the first
4. The first statement is correct, but second is not the correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Both the statements are correct and second is the correct explanation of the first
The atmosphere is warmed mainly from below, by terrestrial radiation and heat transfer from the earth's surface. Since the heat source is the ground, temperature falls with height in the troposphere, so statement b explains statement a.
Which of the following rock types is a hydrous rock formed by chemical processes ?
1. Gypsum
2. Shale
3. Granite
4. Pumice
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Gypsum
Gypsum (hydrated calcium sulphate) is a chemically formed sedimentary rock that precipitates when water evaporates. Shale is a mechanically formed sedimentary rock, while granite and pumice are igneous rocks.
Which one of the following statements is/are not correct ? a. Tropical cyclones are formed in the 30° Latitude region North and South of the equator. b. The diameter of a tropical cyclone can range from 300 to 1500 km and even more. c. Tropical cyclones can have wind speed of 50 to 60 km per hour and even more. d. Tropical cyclones flow clockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere.
1. Only a
2. Only b and c
3. Only d
4. Only b and d
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only b and d
Statement d is wrong because tropical cyclones rotate anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere. The official MPSC key gives option (4), treating statements b and d as the incorrect ones.
Which of the following rivers are the tributaries of the Sindhu river ? A. Jhelum, Chenab, Kosi, Sutlej B. Gandak, Kosi, Ghagra, Son C. Sutlej, Beas, Ravi, Chenab D. Kabul, Kurram, Swat, Jhelum
1. A and B are correct
2. C and D are correct
3. B and D are correct
4. A and C are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) C and D are correct
Sutlej, Beas, Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum are the Punjab tributaries of the Indus, and Kabul, Kurram and Swat join it from the west. Kosi, Gandak, Ghaghara and Son belong to the Ganga system, so only C and D are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources
Match the Indian States/Union Territory (List - I) with their Sex-Ratio (List - II). List - I States/Union Territory : List - II Sex-Ratio (Census - 2011) a. Kerala : i. 996 b. Tamil Nadu : ii. 1037 c. Puducherry : iii. 1084 d. Andhra Pradesh : iv. 993
1. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
2. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
3. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
4. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
In the 2011 Census, Kerala had the highest sex ratio of 1084, Puducherry 1037, Tamil Nadu 996 and undivided Andhra Pradesh 993. So a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv.
Which of the following is the reason of the storms in Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal on the border of the Indian Peninsula ?
1. Due to decrease in temperature and increase in air pressure
2. Due to increase in temperature and decrease in air pressure
3. Increase in temperature and air pressure
4. Decrease in temperature and air pressure
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Due to increase in temperature and decrease in air pressure
Cyclonic storms form when warm sea surfaces heat the air above, which rises and creates an area of low pressure. Rising temperature and falling pressure therefore cause these storms.
Kalsubai is the highest mountain peak in Maharashtra located in which of the following mountain ranges ?
1. Sahyadri
2. Shambhu Mahadeo
3. Satpuda
4. Balaghat
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Sahyadri
Kalsubai (about 1646 m) in Ahilyanagar (Ahmednagar) district is the highest peak of Maharashtra and lies in the Sahyadri (Western Ghats).
Match the following. Ocean : Trench a. Pacific ocean : i. Java Trench b. Atlantic ocean : ii. Mariana Trench c. Indian ocean : iii. Eurasian Trench d. Arctic ocean : iv. Puerto Rico Trench
1. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
4. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
The Mariana Trench is in the Pacific, the Puerto Rico Trench in the Atlantic, the Java (Sunda) Trench in the Indian Ocean and the Eurasian basin deep in the Arctic. So a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii.
Match the pollutants given in List - I with their effects given in List - II. List - I Pollutants : List - II Effects of Pollutants a. Phosphate fertilizers in water : i. Biochemical oxygen demand level increase b. Methane in air : ii. Acid Rain c. Synthetic detergents in water : iii. Global warming d. Nitrogen oxides in air : iv. Eutrophication
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
2. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
3. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
4. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Phosphate fertilizers feed algal blooms (eutrophication), methane is a greenhouse gas causing global warming, detergents add organic load that raises BOD, and nitrogen oxides form nitric acid in acid rain. So a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
Which of the following animal is not declared as a critically endangered species of reptile and amphibian of India ?
1. Gharial
2. Bengal Florican
3. Four-toed River Terrapin
4. Leatherback turtles
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Bengal Florican
The Bengal Florican is a critically endangered bird (a bustard), not a reptile or amphibian. The gharial, four-toed river terrapin and leatherback turtle are reptiles listed among India's threatened species.
Which of the following acronyms has been used by Biologists to describe the factors that threaten to biodiversity ?
1. EIA
2. IUCN
3. EPA
4. HIPPO
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) HIPPO
Biologist E. O. Wilson popularised HIPPO for the main threats to biodiversity: Habitat loss, Invasive species, Pollution, human Population growth and Over-harvesting.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy resource ?
1. Rock-Coal
2. Mineral Oil/Petroleum
3. Natural Gas
4. Geothermal energy
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Geothermal energy
Geothermal energy comes from the earth's internal heat, which is continuously replenished, so it is renewable. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are fossil fuels that are exhaustible.
As per the Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008, the ______ shall be the nodal Ministry to deal with the transboundary movement of the hazardous wastes and to grant permission for transit of the hazardous wastes through any part of India.
1. Ministry of Environment and Forests, Govt. of India
2. Ministry of Home Affairs, Govt. of India
3. Ministry of External Affairs, Govt. of India
4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Govt. of India
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Ministry of Environment and Forests, Govt. of India
Under the Hazardous Waste Rules, 2008, framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Ministry of Environment and Forests is the nodal ministry for transboundary movement and transit of hazardous wastes.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
Identify the correct statement/s from the following regarding Food Security Bill, 2013. A. The Bill provides food safety benefits to the 50% of the urban population and 75% of the rural population. B. Beneficiaries will be provided rice at Rs. 3/-kg, coarse grains at Re. 1/-kg and wheat at Rs. 2/-kg per month.
1. Both A and B are correct
2. Both A and B are incorrect
3. Only A is correct
4. Only B is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Both A and B are incorrect
The National Food Security Act, 2013 covers up to 75 percent of the rural and up to 50 percent of the urban population, with a monthly entitlement of 5 kg of grain per person at Rs 3, Rs 2 and Re 1 per kg. The official MPSC key gives option (2), treating both statements as incorrect as worded.
The term sustainable development first came into prominence in the World Conservation Strategy presented in ______.
1. 1980
2. 1987
3. 1990
4. 1992
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 1980
The World Conservation Strategy, released in 1980 by IUCN with UNEP and WWF, first gave prominence to the term sustainable development. The Brundtland Report that popularised its definition came later, in 1987.
What is India's position in the Sustainable Development Goals Index released in 2020 ?
1. 117th
2. 17th
3. 40th
4. 125th
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 117th
In the Sustainable Development Report 2020 (SDG Index) by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network, India was ranked 117th out of 193 countries.
"Economic growth is the increase in output only" whose statement was this ?
1. Prof. Edison
2. Prof. Kindleberger
3. A.D. Gorwala
4. Prof. Joseph Schumpeter
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Prof. Kindleberger
Charles Kindleberger distinguished economic growth, meaning more output, from economic development, which includes more output plus changes in the technical and institutional arrangements of production.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option regarding Indian economy. A. Considering the economic changes in India after globalisation, 'Trickle Down Theory' is precisely applicable to Indian economy. B. The high growth rate of Indian economy after globalisation, especially since 2005, poses question about applicability of the 'Trickle Down Theory'.
1. Statement A is correct
2. Statement B is correct
3. Both statements A and B are correct
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Statement B is correct
The trickle down theory assumes that the benefits of high growth automatically reach the poor. India's high growth after globalisation was accompanied by persistent inequality and slow job creation, which questions this theory, so only statement B is correct.
"About 40% of the population of the developing world did not benefit from economic growth during the 1950's and 1960's." Who made this statement ?
1. Robert McNamara
2. Robert Clover
3. Charles Kindleberger
4. Jean Dreze
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Robert McNamara
As World Bank President, Robert McNamara argued in the early 1970s that roughly 40 percent of people in developing countries had not shared in the growth of the 1950s and 1960s, which led the Bank to focus on poverty. The official MPSC key gives option (1).
Which one of the following National Mission was not included in the National Climate Action Program ?
1. National Solar Mission
2. National Sustainable Habitat Mission
3. National Water Mission
4. National Health Mission
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) National Health Mission
The National Action Plan on Climate Change (2008) has eight missions, including the Solar, Sustainable Habitat and Water Missions. The National Health Mission is a health programme and is not one of them.
Which of the following is/are reason/s for the existence of poverty even after seven decades of Independence in India ? A. More dependency of Economy on the agricultural sector. B. Shortage of employment opportunities in manufacturing sector. C. High growth rate of agriculture in comparison with developed countries.
1. Statements A and C are correct
2. Statements A and B are correct
3. Only statement A is correct
4. Only statement B is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Statements A and B are correct
Heavy dependence on low-productivity agriculture and too few jobs in manufacturing keep many Indians poor. A high agricultural growth rate would reduce poverty rather than cause it, so only A and B are reasons.
Program/s implemented under the Integrated Child Development Services Scheme ______. A. Nutrition supplemental program B. Health check-up C. Worker's training D. Gender inequality
1. Only A, C
2. Only C, D
3. Only A, B
4. A, B and C
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only A, B
The ICDS package for children and mothers includes supplementary nutrition, immunisation, health check-ups, referral services, pre-school education and nutrition and health education. The official MPSC key gives option (3), only A and B.
As per the 2011 Census, 13% of the total urban population of the country was living in which of the following cities in 2011 ? a. Mumbai b. Chennai c. Kolkata d. Delhi
1. a and d
2. a, c and d
3. a, b and d
4. a, b and c
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) a, c and d
In 2011, Greater Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata were the three mega cities with populations above 10 million, and together they held about 13 percent of India's urban population. Chennai was below that size.
As per the 2011 Census, India's population percentage is ______ of the total Global population.
1. 2.4
2. 17.5
3. 31.9
4. 25.1
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 17.5
India has about 17.5 percent of the world's population on only about 2.4 percent of the world's land area, as noted in the 2011 Census.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in relation to India's National Population Policy, 2000 ? A. Stabilizing the population of the country by 2050 with maximum two children norm. B. Universal immunization. C. Reduction of infant mortality rate below 30% per thousand.
1. Statements A, B and C are correct
2. Statements A and C are correct
3. Only statement A is correct
4. Only statement B is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only statement B is correct
Universal immunisation of children is one of the goals of the National Population Policy, 2000. Its long-term aim was a stable population by 2045, not 2050, and its IMR target was below 30 per 1000 live births, so the key gives only statement B.
A ceiling on agricultural holdings means statutory absolute limit on the amount of land which an individual can hold. The imposition of a ceiling has which of the following two aspects ? a. Ceiling on future acquisition b. Ceiling on consolidating land holding c. Ceiling on existing land holding d. Ceiling on conversion
1. a and b
2. b and c
3. c and d
4. a and c
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।
MPSC cancelled this question. In Indian land reforms, a ceiling on land holdings is generally described as applying both to existing holdings and to future acquisitions of land.
Consider the following statements : A. Gender Development Index is a composite index of health, education, empowerment and labour market. B. When the above four factors are considered together, inequality in women and men has adverse impact on Human Development Index.
1. Only A is correct
2. Only B is correct
3. Both A and B are correct
4. Both A and B are incorrect
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Both A and B are correct
The official MPSC key gives option (3), treating both statements as correct. Gender-based indices bring together dimensions such as health, education, empowerment and labour market participation, and inequality between women and men lowers a country's achievement in human development.
Which of the following was the main objective of the 20 point programme announced on 26 June, 1975 ? A. To improve the standard of living. B. To help the people living below the poverty line (Poverty alleviation).
1. Only A is correct
2. Only B is correct
3. Both A and B are correct
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Both A and B are correct
The Twenty Point Programme launched in 1975 aimed at poverty alleviation and at improving the quality of life of the poor, so both objectives are correct.
The ratio of lengths to radii of two rods of same material is 1 : 2 and 2 : 3. If temperature difference between two ends of the rod is same, then what will be the ratio of heat flow ?
1. 3 : 2
2. 4 : 3
3. 1 : 3
4. 8 : 9
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 8 : 9
Rate of heat flow is proportional to area divided by length, that is to r squared over L. With lengths 1 : 2 and radii 2 : 3, the ratio is (4/1) : (9/2) = 8 : 9.
In the network of resistances shown below, Current through the battery will be ______. [Figure: a 2V battery connected across a network of resistors 1Ω, 2Ω, 3Ω, 2Ω and 4Ω]
This question has a figure in the official paper; it is described in words above.इस प्रश्न में आधिकारिक पेपर में एक चित्र है; ऊपर उसे शब्दों में बताया गया है। See the official paperआधिकारिक पेपर देखिए
1. 1.5 A
2. 3.5 A
3. 4.0 A
4. 1.0 A
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 1.0 A
The network is a balanced Wheatstone bridge (2/1 = 4/2), so no current flows in the 3 ohm resistor. The branches of 2 + 4 = 6 ohm and 1 + 2 = 3 ohm are in parallel, giving 2 ohm, so the current is 2 V / 2 ohm = 1.0 A.
Which physical quantity conserved during collision ?
1. Mass
2. Momentum
3. Time
4. Length
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Momentum
In every collision, elastic or inelastic, the total linear momentum of the colliding bodies stays the same when no external force acts. This is the law of conservation of momentum.
Which of the following confirms that the universe is not static but expanding ?
1. Red shift in the light coming from distant galaxies
2. Blue shift in the light coming from distant galaxies
3. Bending of light while passing near to the Black hole
4. Constancy of velocity of light
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Red shift in the light coming from distant galaxies
Light from distant galaxies is shifted towards longer (red) wavelengths, showing that they are moving away from us. Hubble found that farther galaxies recede faster, which shows the universe is expanding.
Neutrino particle is emitted in the process of ______.
1. α-decay
2. β-decay
3. γ-decay
4. X-ray
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) β-decay
In beta decay a neutron changes into a proton (or the reverse), emitting an electron or positron together with an antineutrino or neutrino. Pauli proposed the neutrino to explain the energy spread of beta particles.
What is the effect of increase in temperature on viscosity of gases ?
1. Viscosity increases
2. Viscosity decreases
3. Viscosity remains constant
4. Viscosity becomes negative
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Viscosity increases
In gases, viscosity comes from momentum transfer by moving molecules, and molecules move faster at higher temperature. So the viscosity of a gas increases with temperature, unlike liquids, whose viscosity decreases.
Stomata will open if there is accumulation of the following element in the guard cells ______.
1. Magnesium
2. Potassium
3. Iron
4. Zinc
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Potassium
When potassium ions (K+) build up in the guard cells, water enters them by osmosis, they swell and become turgid, and the stomatal pore opens.
Citrus canker is caused by which type of pathogen ?
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
4. Nematode
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Bacteria
Citrus canker is a bacterial disease caused by Xanthomonas citri (Xanthomonas axonopodis pv. citri), which produces raised corky lesions on leaves, twigs and fruits.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Spirogyra algae ? a. It is commonly called as Pond scum. b. It grows in Marine water. c. Its cell consist spiral shaped chloroplast. d. It belong in family Zygnemataceae.
1. a, b and c
2. b, c and d
3. a, c and d
4. a, b and d
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) a, c and d
Spirogyra is a freshwater green alga commonly called pond scum, with ribbon-like spiral chloroplasts, and it belongs to the family Zygnemataceae. It does not grow in marine water, so b is wrong.
The categories of sclereids are ______. a. Macrosclereids b. Osteosclereids c. Tracheids d. Asterosclereids Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Only a
2. Only a and b
3. a, b and d
4. a, b and c
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) a, b and d
Sclereids (stone cells) are classified as brachysclereids, macrosclereids, osteosclereids, astrosclereids and trichosclereids. Tracheids are water-conducting xylem elements, not sclereids, so a, b and d are correct.
Which of the following sets of hormones regulate menstrual cycle ?
1. FSH, LH, estrogen and progesterone
2. Estrogen, testosterone, LH and Corticosterone
3. Cortisol, estrogen, progesterone and FSH
4. Dihydrotestosterone, estrogen, progesterone and FSH
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) FSH, LH, estrogen and progesterone
The menstrual cycle is controlled by the pituitary hormones FSH and LH and the ovarian hormones estrogen and progesterone.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Human Body: Key Facts
Flowers, leaves and seeds of which plant are used to prepare a narcotics 'Marijuana' ?
1. Cannabis Sativa
2. Nicotiana tabacum
3. Opium Poppy
4. Mentha Spicata
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Cannabis Sativa
Marijuana is prepared from the dried flowers, leaves and seeds of the hemp plant, Cannabis sativa. Nicotiana tabacum is tobacco, opium comes from the poppy and Mentha spicata is spearmint.
The main objective/s of "Human Genome Project 1990" was/were ______. a. To identify 20,000 to 25,000 genes in human. b. To determine the sequence of 5 billion base pairs in DNA. c. To incorporate new genomic knowledge into research and medicine. d. To develop cloning of animals.
1. Only b and d
2. Only a and c
3. Only a
4. Only b
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only a
A key goal of the Human Genome Project was to identify all of the roughly 20,000 to 25,000 human genes. It aimed to sequence about 3 billion base pairs, not 5 billion, and animal cloning was not its goal. The official MPSC key gives option (3), only a.
In prokaryotic genetic code, which is the initial code for N-formyl methionine ?
1. TTG
2. CUG
3. GGC
4. AUG
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) AUG
In prokaryotes, translation starts at the codon AUG, which codes for N-formyl methionine at the initiation site.
Which of the following options does not involve use of carbon in any form for energy production ? A. Wood B. Biogas C. Geothermal source D. Coal
1. Both A and B
2. Both B and C
3. Only C
4. Only D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only C
Wood, biogas (mainly methane) and coal all release energy by burning carbon compounds. Geothermal energy uses heat from the earth's interior and involves no carbon fuel, so only C fits.
Which chemical bond is formed between Mg and Cl atoms during formation of compound MgCl2 ? a. Covalent bond b. Ionic bond c. Coordinate covalent bond d. Metallic bond
1. Only d
2. Only a
3. Only a and c
4. Only b
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only b
Magnesium gives up its two valence electrons, one to each chlorine atom, forming Mg2+ and Cl- ions held together by electrostatic attraction. So MgCl2 has an ionic bond.
Which of the following is used as a substitute for wool in the production of commercial fibers ?
1. Dacron
2. Teflon
3. Polyacrylonitrile
4. Caprolactam
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Polyacrylonitrile
Polyacrylonitrile (acrylic fibre, sold as Orlon or Acrilan) is soft and warm and is widely used as a substitute for wool. Dacron is a polyester, Teflon is a non-stick polymer and caprolactam is the raw material of nylon-6.
Which of the following medicine can be classified as both Analgesics and Antipyretics ? A. Veronal B. Benadryl C. Penicillin D. Paracetamol
1. Only A
2. Both A and D
3. Both B and C
4. Only D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only D
Paracetamol relieves pain (analgesic) and lowers fever (antipyretic). Veronal is a sedative, Benadryl is an antihistamine and penicillin is an antibiotic.
Match the correct pairs : A. Monosaccharide : i. Raffinose B. Disaccharide : ii. Starch C. Trisaccharide : iii. Glucose D. Polysaccharide : iv. Sucrose
1. A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
2. A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
3. A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
4. A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose a disaccharide, raffinose a trisaccharide and starch a polysaccharide. So A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii.
The isotopes of hydrogen and their respective mass ratio are ______.
1. Deuterium, Protium, Tritium; 1 : 2 : 3
2. Tritium, Deuterium, Protium; 2 : 3 : 1
3. Tritium, Protium, Deuterium; 2 : 3 : 1
4. Protium, Deuterium, Tritium; 1 : 2 : 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Protium, Deuterium, Tritium; 1 : 2 : 3
Protium has mass number 1, deuterium 2 and tritium 3, since they have 0, 1 and 2 neutrons respectively. So their mass ratio is 1 : 2 : 3.
Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts provided for the formation of the 'Metropolitan Planning Committee' ?
1. 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
2. 44th Constitution Amendment Act
3. 73rd Constitution Amendment Act
4. 74th Constitution Amendment Act
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 74th Constitution Amendment Act
The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 on urban local bodies added Part IXA, whose Article 243ZE provides for a Metropolitan Planning Committee in every metropolitan area.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
Identify the incorrect pair/s of the various Committees constituted under the Indian Constituent Assembly and its Chairmans. A. Steering Committee - Rajendra Prasad B. Advisory Committee - Vallabhbhai Patel C. Central Rights Committee - J. B. Kripalani D. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. C and D
4. A and B
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) C and D
Rajendra Prasad chaired the Steering Committee and Vallabhbhai Patel the Advisory Committee. The Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee was chaired by J. B. Kripalani, while Nehru chaired the Union Powers Committee, so pairs C and D are incorrect.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
Select the correct statement/s from the following. A. The Vice-President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. B. A Vice-President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. C. A Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House of People and approved by the Council of States.
1. Only A
2. Only B, C
3. Only A, C
4. Only A, B
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only A, B
Under Article 67, the Vice-President holds office for five years from entering office and may resign by writing to the President. Removal needs a resolution of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) passed by a majority of all its members and agreed to by the House of the People, so C reverses the Houses.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Identify the incorrect statement/s from the following about provisions for Anglo-Indian Community. A. Article 335 is related to Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly. B. Grants if any, were made for the benefit of the Anglo-Indian Community in respect of education in the financial year ending on the 31st March, 1948, the same shall be given for the first three financial years after the commencement of the Constitution. C. During every succeeding period of three years, the grants may be less 10%, than that, for the immediately preceding period of three years.
1. Only A
2. Only B and C
3. Only C
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A
Representation of Anglo-Indians in State Legislative Assemblies was under Article 333, while Article 335 deals with claims of SCs and STs to services. Statements B and C correctly describe the educational grants under Article 337, so only A is incorrect.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Which of the following are related to Article 1 to 4 of Part I of the Constitution of India ? a. The union and its territory b. About the Fundamental Rights c. About the Justice d. Regarding duties
1. Only b and d
2. Only c and a
3. Only a
4. Only a and b
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only a
Part I (Articles 1 to 4) is titled 'The Union and its Territory' and deals with the name of India, admission and formation of states and changes in their boundaries. Fundamental Rights are in Part III and Fundamental Duties in Part IVA.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Identify the States without special status under Article 371 and its Sub-Articles of the Constitution of India.
1. Nagaland, Assam
2. Manipur, Sikkim
3. Mizoram, Nagaland
4. Tripura, Jharkhand
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Tripura, Jharkhand
Articles 371A to 371J give special provisions for Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Sikkim, Mizoram and others, but Tripura and Jharkhand have no such provision under Article 371.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
The First Lok Adalat Camp after Independence was held in which State in 1982 ?
1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Punjab
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Gujarat
The first Lok Adalat camp in independent India was held in Gujarat in 1982 (at Junagadh). Lok Adalats later received statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya was a Chairman of the following Committees. A. House Committee B. Committee on Chief Commissioner's Provinces C. Adhoc Committee on Citizenship D. Adhoc Committee on Supreme Court
1. Only A, B
2. Only C, D
3. Only A, D
4. Only B, C
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A, B
In the Constituent Assembly, B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya chaired the House Committee and the Committee on Chief Commissioners' Provinces. The ad hoc committees on citizenship and on the Supreme Court were chaired by S. Varadachariar, so only A and B are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
The 'National Commission for Protection of Child Rights' (NCPCR) in India was established in which year ?
1. 2001
2. 2005
3. 2007
4. 2010
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) 2007
The NCPCR was set up in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. The Act was passed in 2005 but the Commission began functioning in 2007.
The 'Protection of Children from Sexual Offences' (POCSO) Act was enacted in India in which year ?
1. 2009
2. 2012
3. 2015
4. 2018
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 2012
The POCSO Act was enacted in 2012 to protect children below 18 years from sexual assault, harassment and pornography, with child-friendly trial procedures.
When was the National Commission for Women established in India ?
1. 1990
2. 1991
3. 1992
4. 1993
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) 1992
The National Commission for Women was set up on 31 January 1992 as a statutory body under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
Which of the following functions were performed by Constituent Assembly on January 24, 1950 ? A. Adopted the National Flag B. Adopted the National Anthem C. Adopted the National Song D. Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as a First President of India
1. Only A, B, C
2. Only A, B, D
3. Only A, C, D
4. Only B, C, D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only B, C, D
At its final session on 24 January 1950, the Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem and the National Song and elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President. The National Flag had been adopted earlier, on 22 July 1947.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
Select the correct statements from the following. A. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November, 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. B. Cabinet Mission rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies. C. The Cripps Proposal was accepted by the Muslim League.
1. Only A, B
2. Only B, C
3. Only A, C
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A, B
The Constituent Assembly was formed in November 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan, which rejected the Muslim League's demand for two separate Constituent Assemblies. The Muslim League rejected the Cripps Proposal of 1942, so C is wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
In which country, the concept of Modern Constitutionalism was started ?
1. America
2. England
3. France
4. India
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) America
The United States adopted the first modern written constitution in 1787, limiting government through a written supreme law, separation of powers and later a Bill of Rights. The official MPSC key gives option (1), America.
Identify the correct statement/s from the following. A. A person who holds, or who has held office as President shall, subject to the other provisions of the Constitution, be eligible for re-election to that office. B. No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he is qualified for election as a member of the Council of the States.
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A
Article 57 makes a sitting or former President eligible for re-election. Article 58 requires a presidential candidate to be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), not the Council of States, so only A is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Which of the following statement is correct ? A. The applications for the Sixth National Water Awards sought on 15 November 2024. B. National Water Awards are given under nine categories. C. Ministry of Jal Shakti has been organising the National Water Awards since year 2016.
1. A, B and C are correct
2. A, B and C are incorrect
3. A and B are correct
4. B and C are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) A, B and C are incorrect
The Ministry of Jal Shakti itself was created only in 2019, and the present series of National Water Awards began in 2018, so statement C cannot be right. The official MPSC key gives option (2), treating all three statements as incorrect.
Arrange the following countries in ascending order according to ranking of Global Peace Index 2024. A. Ireland B. Austria C. Iceland D. New Zealand
1. A, B, C, D
2. C, A, B, D
3. C, B, A, D
4. B, C, D, A
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।
MPSC cancelled this question. In the Global Peace Index 2024 by the Institute for Economics and Peace, Iceland was ranked the most peaceful country, followed by Ireland, Austria and New Zealand.
Gukesh D. is one of the most outstanding chess player of the country. His achievements are, A. Gold medal in FIDE World Chess Championship held in Singapore in 2024. B. Gold medal in FIDE 45th Chess Olympiad (Open Team) held in Singapore in 2024. C. Gold Medal in FIDE 45th Chess Olympiad (Individual) held in Budapest in 2024. Consider the above statements and select the correct statements.
1. Only A, B
2. Only B, C
3. Only A, C
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only A, C
Gukesh won the FIDE World Championship match in Singapore in December 2024. The 45th Chess Olympiad of 2024 was held in Budapest, not Singapore, where he won individual board gold, so B is wrong and A and C are correct.
Identify the correct statement/s : A. January 22 is celebrated as 'National Girl Child Day' in India. B. National Girl Child Day celebrated from 2008 to spread awareness about girl child rights. C. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme launched in 2015.
1. Only A, B
2. Only B, C
3. Only A, C
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only B, C
National Girl Child Day is observed on 24 January, not 22 January, so A is wrong. It has been observed since 2008 to raise awareness of girls' rights, and the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme was launched in January 2015, so only B and C are correct.
Match the pairs (BRICS Summits) : A : B A. 16th BRICS Summit : i. New Delhi B. 15th BRICS Summit : ii. Beijing C. 14th BRICS Summit : iii. Johannesburg D. 13th BRICS Summit : iv. Kazan
1. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
2. A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
3. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
4. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
The 16th BRICS Summit was held at Kazan, Russia (2024), the 15th at Johannesburg, South Africa (2023), the 14th was hosted by China from Beijing (2022) and the 13th by India from New Delhi (2021). So A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i.
Which of the following items will receive free of cost to the beneficiaries of Akshay Anna Yojana ? A. Rice B. Sugar C. Red chilli powder D. Turmeric E. Jowar
1. Only A, B, C
2. Only C, D, E
3. Only A, B, E
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above
The official MPSC key gives option (4), meaning that rice, sugar, red chilli powder, turmeric and jowar are all supplied free under the Akshay Anna Yojana as framed in the question.
Identify the correct statements regarding Bhagwan Birsa Munda Road Linking Scheme. A. This scheme was started by Maharashtra Government. B. This scheme was only launched to connect the tribal villages. C. This scheme was made to connect tribal areas with primary health centres and Ashram schools through main roads. D. This scheme was discontinued by Govt. of Maharashtra in January 2025.
1. A, B
2. B, C
3. A, B, C
4. A, C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) A, B, C
The Bhagwan Birsa Munda Jodrasta scheme is a Maharashtra Government scheme to link tribal villages and hamlets, including their primary health centres and Ashram schools, to main roads. It was not discontinued, so A, B and C are correct.
Which party has won in the General elections of Maldives held in April 2024 ?
1. People's National Congress
2. Maldives National Congress
3. Awami League
4. Democratic Party
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) People's National Congress
In the Maldivian parliamentary election of 21 April 2024, President Mohamed Muizzu's People's National Congress won a large majority in the People's Majlis. The Awami League is a party of Bangladesh.
According to the Indus Water Treaty of 1960, India uses water of ______ rivers.
1. Sutlej, Indus, Ravi
2. Ravi, Jhelum, Indus
3. Sutlej, Beas, Ravi
4. Ravi, Chenab, Indus
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Sutlej, Beas, Ravi
The Indus Waters Treaty, 1960 gave India the waters of the three eastern rivers, Sutlej, Beas and Ravi, while Pakistan received the western rivers Indus, Jhelum and Chenab.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources
What is the meaning of 'guillotine' in the Indian Budget Process ? a. Raising taxes to fill Government deficits. b. Remaining budgetary demands for grants are put to vote without further discussion. c. Reserve Bank's support during financial crises. d. Rejection by the Parliament at the end of the budget. Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
1. Only b
2. Only c and d
3. Only a, b and c
4. Only a
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only b
On the last day allotted for discussion of demands for grants, the Speaker puts all remaining demands to vote together without further discussion. This procedure is called the guillotine.
Which of the following books are written by Maruti Chitampalli ? A. Ratva B. Pakhar Maya C. Chakwa Chandan D. Phulvanti E. Janglacha Paus
1. Only A, B, C
2. Only B, D, E
3. Only A, D, B
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A, B, C
Maruti Chitampalli, the Marathi forest and wildlife writer, wrote books such as 'Ratva', 'Pakhar Maya' and 'Chakwa Chandan', the last being his autobiography. The official MPSC key gives option (1).
The President of India Draupadi Murmu inaugurated Kaushal Bhawan the new building at the ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship, on 24th January, 2024 at
1. New Delhi
2. Hyderabad
3. Bengaluru
4. Lucknow
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) New Delhi
Kaushal Bhawan, the new headquarters building of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, was inaugurated by President Droupadi Murmu in New Delhi on 24 January 2024.
Select the correct statement/s from the following : A. A key highlight of the Union Budget 2025 - 26 is the launch of a Nuclear Energy Mission, which is focused on research and development of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs). B. To facilitate the implementation of the Nuclear Energy Mission, amendments to the Atomic Energy Act and Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act will be taken up by the Parliament. C. These Amendments are expected to encourage foreign sector investments in nuclear power projects.
1. Only A, B
2. Only B, C
3. Only A, C
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above
The Union Budget 2025-26 announced a Nuclear Energy Mission for research and development of Small Modular Reactors and proposed amending the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act to open the sector to private and foreign participation. So all three statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
Select the correct statement/s from the following : A. INS Vikrant officially joined the Indian Navy's Western Naval Command in August 2024. B. INS Vikrant (INS - I) is an aircraft carrier in service with the Indian Navy. It is the first ship of its kind to be built in Tamil Nadu.
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only A
INS Vikrant, India's first indigenous aircraft carrier, was built at Cochin Shipyard in Kerala, not in Tamil Nadu, so statement B is wrong. The official MPSC key gives option (1), only A.
Chief Justice of India, Bhushan Gawai which is not true about him ?
1. He was born on 24th November 1960.
2. He practiced in Constitutional Law and Administrative Law.
3. He was appointed as Government Pleader and Public Prosecutor for Nagpur Bench in January 2005.
4. He was elevated as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India in May 2019.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) He was appointed as Government Pleader and Public Prosecutor for Nagpur Bench in January 2005.
Justice B. R. Gavai, born on 24 November 1960, practised mainly in constitutional and administrative law and became a Supreme Court judge in May 2019. He was appointed Government Pleader and Public Prosecutor at the Nagpur Bench in January 2000, not 2005, so statement (3) is not true.

Maharashtra Civil Services Gazetted Combined Preliminary Examination 2025, Paper 1

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

Menu

Explore

Language · भाषा