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UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2018, General Studies Paper I

Series A. Questions and answers from the official UPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक UPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real UPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

  1. Consider the following statements: 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha was first recognised in 1969, when Ram Subhag Singh of the Congress (O) got the post. The Swatantra Party was founded only in 1959, so it could not be in the first Lok Sabha (the largest opposition party then was the CPI). The convention requires a party to have at least one-tenth of the House (55 members), not 75.

  2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Desert plants reduce water loss through transpiration in several ways. A thick waxy cuticle, very small leaves and leaves reduced to spines (as in cactus) all cut down the surface from which water can evaporate, so all three are correct.

  3. As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements: 1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households. 2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs. 3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3 only

    The 70th Round survey (2013) found that Rajasthan had the highest share of agricultural households among rural households (about 78 percent), and that in Kerala about 61 percent of agricultural households earned most of their income from non-agricultural sources. OBCs made up about 45 percent of agricultural households, not over 60 percent, so statement 2 is wrong.

  4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    Both bodies are statutory: the NGT was set up under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, and the CPCB was constituted in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 correctly describes their roles: the NGT gives speedy environmental justice and eases the load on higher courts, while the CPCB works to keep streams and wells clean and improve air quality.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India

  5. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Parliament can add a law to the Ninth Schedule through a constitutional amendment, so statement 1 is correct. In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed if they violate the basic structure, so statement 2 is wrong.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules

  6. Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in news?

    1. The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
    2. The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
    3. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
    4. The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.

    The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is the fee a bank charges a merchant for processing payments that customers make with cards. It is a cost to the merchant, not an incentive or cashback, which rules out the other options.

  7. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'? 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. 2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)". Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Membership of the Nuclear Suppliers Group, the club of countries that controls trade in nuclear material and technology, makes it easier for a member to obtain advanced nuclear technology and fuel from other members, so statement 1 is accepted. Joining the NSG does not make a country a party to the NPT, which is a separate treaty that must be signed and ratified on its own, so statement 2 is wrong.

  8. With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements". Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    The 6% equalisation levy was introduced through a separate chapter of the Finance Act, 2016, not as part of the Income Tax Act, so statement 1 is wrong. Because the levy sits outside the Income Tax Act, it is not treated as an income tax covered by Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements, so foreign firms cannot claim a credit for it in their home country under those agreements, and statement 2 is also wrong.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms

  9. Consider the following statements: 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. 2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. 3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3 only

    The N.K. Singh FRBM Review Committee (2017) recommended a general government debt of 60% of GDP by 2023, split as 40% for the Centre and 20% for the States. Under Article 293(3), a State that still owes money to the Centre must take the Centre's consent before raising a loan. Statement 2 reverses the figures: the Centre's liabilities were the larger share, not the States'.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms

  10. Consider the following statements: 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    India imports more than half of the edible oil it consumes, so imports have exceeded domestic production. The government does levy customs duty on imported edible oils and changes the rates from time to time, so statement 2 is wrong.

  11. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

    1. Aurobindo Ghosh
    2. Bipin Chandra Pal
    3. Lala Lajpat Rai
    4. Motilal Nehru
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Lala Lajpat Rai

    Lala Lajpat Rai wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna, lived in the United States from 1914 to 1919 where he founded the Indian Home Rule League of America, and was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly in 1926.

  12. Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    The Aadhaar Act, 2016 says that Aadhaar is not proof of citizenship or domicile; it can be issued to any resident. The UIDAI regulations allow it to omit or deactivate an Aadhaar number in certain cases, such as duplicate or fraudulently obtained numbers, so both statements are wrong.

  13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities? 1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Lake Baikal Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 2 only
    4. 1 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    The Aral Sea in Central Asia has shrunk to a small fraction of its former size since the 1960s because the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers that feed it were diverted for irrigation. The Black Sea and Lake Baikal have not dried up in this way.

  14. "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?

    1. Amnesty International
    2. International Court of Justice
    3. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
    4. World Justice Project
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) World Justice Project

    The Rule of Law Index is published by the World Justice Project, an independent organisation based in Washington, D.C. It ranks countries on factors such as limits on government powers, absence of corruption and access to justice.

  15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

    1. Indian Banks' Association
    2. National Securities Depository Limited
    3. National Payments Corporation of India
    4. Reserve Bank of India
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) National Payments Corporation of India

    The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) runs the National Financial Switch, which connects the ATMs of different banks so that a card from one bank works at another bank's ATM. The RBI regulates payments but does not itself operate this network.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India

  16. Consider the following statements: 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    The Capital Adequacy Ratio is the share of a bank's own capital, measured against its risk-weighted assets, that acts as a cushion against losses when borrowers default. The minimum CAR is not decided by each bank; in India it is prescribed by the RBI in line with the Basel norms.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools

  17. The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply? 1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. 2. Online authentication using iris is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    Open APIs mean that Aadhaar authentication and eKYC services can be built into apps and electronic devices by service providers. Aadhaar authentication can be done online using demographic data, fingerprints or iris scans, so both statements are correct.

  18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

    1. Angola and Zambia
    2. Morocco and Tunisia
    3. Venezuela and Colombia
    4. Yemen and South Sudan
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Yemen and South Sudan

    Around 2017 and 2018, the civil war in Yemen and the conflict in South Sudan left millions of people facing famine or acute malnutrition, and famine was formally declared in parts of South Sudan in 2017. The other pairs were not facing conflict-driven famine on that scale.

  19. Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true? 1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. 2. Establishment of universities was recommended. 3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only

    Wood's Dispatch of 1854 introduced grants-in-aid for private schools and recommended universities on the London model, which led to the universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857. It favoured English for higher education but the vernacular languages at the primary level, so statement 3 is wrong.

  20. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

    1. Committee on Government Assurances
    2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
    3. Rules Committee
    4. Business Advisory Committee
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

    The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines whether the executive is using its delegated power to make rules, regulations and by-laws within the limits set by the Constitution or the parent Act. The Committee on Government Assurances tracks promises made by ministers in the House, while the Rules and Business Advisory Committees deal with House procedure and time.

  21. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    Under the RTE Act, the minimum qualifications for teachers are laid down by an academic authority notified by the Central Government, which is the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not a State council. The NCTE made passing a Teacher Eligibility Test, held as per its guidelines, a requirement. Most teacher education institutions in India are privately run, not directly under State Governments, so statement 3 is wrong.

  22. Consider the following pairs: Tradition : State 1. Chapchar Kut festival : Mizoram 2. Khongjom Parba ballad : Manipur 3. Thang-Ta dance : Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 3 only
    4. 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1 and 2

    Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of Mizoram, and Khongjom Parba is a Manipuri ballad style that narrates the Battle of Khongjom of 1891. Thang-Ta is a martial art form of Manipur, not Sikkim, so pair 3 is wrong.

  23. Consider the following statements: 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 consolidated older food laws and repealed the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. FSSAI works under the administrative control of the Union Health Ministry, but it is a statutory body headed by its own Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer, not by the Director General of Health Services.

  24. The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

    1. China
    2. Israel
    3. Iraq
    4. Yemen
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Israel

    The two-state solution is the proposal to settle the Israeli-Palestinian conflict by having an independent State of Palestine existing alongside the State of Israel.

  25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements: 1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains. 2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. 3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    Section 13 of the Act makes the eldest woman aged 18 or above the head of the household for issuing ration cards. Coverage is not limited to BPL families: up to 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population, as priority households and Antyodaya households, are covered. Pregnant and lactating women are entitled to a free meal or take-home ration under the Act's nutritional norms (about 600 calories) and maternity benefit of at least Rs 6,000, not 1600 calories.

  26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

    1. ILO
    2. IMF
    3. UNCTAD
    4. WTO
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) WTO

    Geographical indications are one of the intellectual property rights covered by the WTO's TRIPS Agreement. As a WTO member, India passed the GI Act in 1999 (in force from 2003) to meet its TRIPS obligations.

  27. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines. 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 3 only

    After the 2015 amendment to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, State Governments auction major non-coal mineral blocks, so statement 1 is wrong. Andhra Pradesh (Ramagiri) and Jharkhand have gold deposits and mines, so statement 2 is wrong. Rajasthan does have iron ore mines, for example in Jaipur and Udaipur districts.

  28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. 2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    BHIM is built on UPI, so a user can send money to anyone whose bank account is linked to UPI. Statement 2 is wrong: a chip-and-PIN card uses two factors (the card and the PIN), and BHIM also uses two-factor authentication (the registered device and the UPI PIN).

  29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

    1. Bengaluru
    2. Hyderabad
    3. Nagpur
    4. Pune
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Bengaluru

    Delhi lies at about 77.2 degrees East and Bengaluru at about 77.6 degrees East, so the two are almost on the same meridian. Hyderabad (about 78.5 E) and Nagpur (about 79.1 E) are farther east, and Pune (about 73.9 E) is farther west.

  30. International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

    1. Child labour
    2. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
    3. Regulation of food prices and food security
    4. Gender parity at the workplace
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Child labour

    ILO Convention 138 sets the minimum age for admission to employment, and Convention 182 deals with the worst forms of child labour. Both are core child labour conventions, and India ratified them in 2017.

  31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

    1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
    2. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
    3. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
    4. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

    Under Article 110, a Money Bill deals with taxes, government borrowing and guarantees, custody of the Consolidated Fund or Contingency Fund, and the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Appropriation out of the Contingency Fund is not among these matters, so statement (c) is the incorrect one.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    The value of an MLA's vote depends on the State's population divided by the number of elected MLAs, so it differs from State to State. Every elected MP, whether in the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, has the same vote value, worked out by dividing the total value of all MLAs' votes by the number of elected MPs.

  33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

    1. The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
    2. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
    3. The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
    4. The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

    India ratified the Additional Protocol in 2014 as part of its civil nuclear arrangements; it applies to the civilian facilities India has placed under IAEA safeguards and gives the IAEA more information and access for them. India's military nuclear facilities stay outside IAEA inspection, and the protocol does not make India a member of the NSG.

  34. Consider the following countries: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?

    1. 1, 2, 4 and 5
    2. 3, 4, 5 and 6
    3. 1, 3, 4 and 5
    4. 2, 3, 4 and 6
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

    ASEAN has free trade agreements with Australia (together with New Zealand), China, India, Japan and South Korea. It had no free trade agreement with Canada or the USA as of 2018.

  35. With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    GACSA was launched at the UN Climate Summit in New York in September 2014, not at the Paris summit of 2015. It is a voluntary alliance, and membership creates no binding obligations. India did not play a leading role in creating it, so only statement 2 is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements

  36. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India? 1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did. 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 3 only

    Digital India, launched in 2015, aims to build digital infrastructure such as broadband for villages and public Wi-Fi in schools, public places and tourist spots, along with digital delivery of services and digital literacy. Creating Chinese-style national internet companies and pushing foreign firms to locate data centres in India were not among its stated aims.

  37. Consider the following pairs: Towns sometimes mentioned in news : Country 1. Aleppo : Syria 2. Kirkuk : Yemen 3. Mosul : Palestine 4. Mazar-i-sharif : Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1 and 4
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1 and 4

    Aleppo is in Syria and Mazar-i-Sharif is in northern Afghanistan. Kirkuk and Mosul are both in Iraq, not in Yemen or Palestine.

  38. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

    1. Federal Legislature
    2. Governor General
    3. Provincial Legislature
    4. Provincial Governors
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Governor General

    The Government of India Act, 1935 divided powers into Federal, Provincial and Concurrent lists. Residuary powers, covering subjects not in any list, were vested in the Governor-General, who could authorise either the Federal or a Provincial legislature to make laws on them.

  39. Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Under Article 179, the Speaker vacates office on ceasing to be a member of the Assembly. However, on dissolution the Speaker does not vacate office immediately; he or she continues until just before the first meeting of the newly elected Assembly.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

    1. If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
    2. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
    3. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
    4. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

    Laws create the conditions in which liberty can exist, by restraining others from interfering with a person's freedom and by protecting rights. Without laws, the strong could take away the freedom of the weak, so the absence of law means the absence of real liberty.

  41. Consider the following statements: 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    Article 361(2) bars any criminal proceedings against the President or a Governor in any court during the term of office. Article 158(4) provides that a Governor's emoluments and allowances shall not be diminished during his term of office, so both statements are correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  42. The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the

    1. Bundi school
    2. Jaipur school
    3. Kangra school
    4. Kishangarh school
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Kishangarh school

    Bani Thani is the most famous work of the Kishangarh school of Rajasthani painting, painted by Nihal Chand in the mid-18th century. It is known for the elongated face, arched eyebrows and lotus-shaped eyes of its subject.

  43. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?

    1. An Israeli radar system
    2. India's indigenous anti-missile programme
    3. An American anti-missile system
    4. A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) An American anti-missile system

    THAAD is a United States missile defence system, built by Lockheed Martin, that intercepts short and medium range ballistic missiles in their final (terminal) phase. It was in the news when it was deployed in South Korea in 2017.

  44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. 4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 4 only

    Tyagaraja (1767 to 1847) composed most of his kritis in praise of Lord Rama, not Krishna, and he is credited with creating several new ragas. Annamacharya lived in the 15th century, so the two were not contemporaries, and his kirtanas are in praise of Lord Venkateshwara of Tirumala.

  45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People's responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

    The Rule of Law means that the government's power is limited by law, that everyone is equal before the law, and that people's liberty and civil rights are protected. It is about the government being answerable under law, not about people's responsibility to the government, so statement 3 is not a feature.

  46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

    1. The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
    2. The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
    3. The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
    4. The metallic money in circulation in a country
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

    Legal tender is money that the law says must be accepted when offered in payment of a debt, such as currency notes and coins issued under the authority of the government. Cheques and drafts are not legal tender, because a creditor can refuse them.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools

  47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

    1. the opportunity cost is zero.
    2. the opportunity cost is ignored.
    3. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
    4. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

    Resources used to make a free good could have been used for something else, so its opportunity cost does not disappear. When the government gives it free, the cost is paid out of public revenue, which means it is borne by taxpayers rather than by the consumers who use the product.

  48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

    1. industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
    2. agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
    3. poverty and unemployment increase.
    4. imports grow faster than exports.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) poverty and unemployment increase.

    Economic development means growth along with better living conditions for people. If real GNP rises but poverty and unemployment also increase, the growth has not improved welfare, so it does not indicate higher economic development.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation

  49. Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital. 2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country. 3. accumulation of tangible wealth. 4. accumulation of intangible wealth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 4
    4. 1, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2 and 4

    Human capital formation is the process of adding to the knowledge, skills and abilities of people, mainly through education, training and health. These skills are a form of intangible wealth, so statements 2 and 4 describe it. Accumulating money capital or tangible assets is physical or financial capital formation, not human capital formation.

  50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

    1. weak administrative machinery
    2. illiteracy
    3. high population density
    4. high capital-output ratio
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) high capital-output ratio

    The capital-output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one extra unit of output. When this ratio is high, capital is being used inefficiently, so even large savings and investment produce only a small increase in output.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation

  51. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government? 1. The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created. 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    After the Santhal Hul of 1855 to 1856 was suppressed, the British carved out a separate district called the Santhal Parganas in 1855 with special administrative rules. Laws were also made to protect Santhal land, including a bar on transferring Santhal land to non-Santhals, so both statements are correct.

  52. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

    1. increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
    2. growth in the number of Indian owned factories
    3. commercialization of Indian agriculture
    4. rapid increase in the urban population
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) commercialization of Indian agriculture

    In the 19th century, British rule pushed Indian farmers to grow cash crops such as indigo, cotton, jute and opium for markets and export, which is called the commercialisation of agriculture. Handicraft exports actually declined, Indian-owned factories grew only slowly, and urbanisation stayed low.

  53. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

    1. the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
    2. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
    3. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
    4. the President can make laws relating to that State.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

    Under Article 356(1)(b), during President's Rule the powers of the State Legislature are exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. The Assembly may be suspended or dissolved but is not dissolved automatically, and Article 19 is suspended only during a national emergency under Article 358.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  54. Consider the following pairs: Craft : Heritage of 1. Puthukkuli shawls : Tamil Nadu 2. Sujni embroidery : Maharashtra 3. Uppada Jamdani saris : Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 3 only
    4. 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Puthukkuli shawls, embroidered by the Toda community of the Nilgiris, are a heritage craft of Tamil Nadu. Sujni embroidery belongs to Bihar, and Uppada Jamdani saris are woven in Andhra Pradesh, so pairs 2 and 3 are wrong.

  55. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used? 1. Mobile phone operations 2. Banking operations 3. Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Besides location, GPS satellites provide a very precise time signal. Mobile networks use it to synchronise towers, banks use it to time-stamp transactions, and power grids use it to synchronise and monitor the flow of electricity, so all three are correct.

  56. Consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities. 2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments. 3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2 and 3 only

    Treasury bills are short-term instruments issued only by the Government of India; State Governments do not issue them. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value. Statement 1 is wrong because the RBI manages the borrowings of State Governments too, through State Development Loans.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools

  57. Consider the following statements: 1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. 2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. 3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3 only

    Rocks show that the Earth's magnetic field has flipped many times, roughly every few hundred thousand years on average. The early atmosphere had almost no free oxygen and was rich in carbon dioxide; oxygen built up later through photosynthesis by living organisms, which is how life changed the atmosphere. So statements 1 and 3 are correct.

  58. The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

    1. Exoplanets
    2. Cryptocurrency
    3. Cyber attacks
    4. Mini satellites
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Cyber attacks

    WannaCry and Petya were ransomware attacks that spread worldwide in 2017, and EternalBlue was the Windows exploit that helped them spread across networks. All three relate to cyber attacks.

  59. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture? 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices 2. Adopting minimum tillage 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 3 and 4
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. 2, 4 and 5
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 5
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2, 4 and 5

    Conservation Agriculture, as defined by the FAO, rests on three principles: minimum disturbance of the soil (minimum or zero tillage), a permanent soil cover such as crop residues, and diversification through crop rotations and sequencing. These match statements 2, 4 and 5; avoiding plantation crops is not part of it.

  60. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

    1. Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
    2. Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
    3. Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
    4. Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

    Earth has gone through five mass extinctions in the past. Scientists warn that a sixth one is now under way because of human activities such as overuse of resources, habitat loss, pollution and climate change, which are driving species extinct far faster than the natural rate.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements: 1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. 2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. 3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    The IRNSS (NavIC) constellation has three satellites in geostationary orbit and four in inclined geosynchronous orbits. It is a regional system that covers India and an area extending about 1500 km beyond its borders, not 5500 sq. km, and it was not planned to have global coverage by 2019.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: ISRO Space Missions

  62. Consider the following phenomena: 1. Light is affected by gravity. 2. The Universe is constantly expanding. 3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    General Relativity describes gravity as the warping of space-time by matter, which also bends the path of light (gravitational lensing). Its equations also allow for a universe that is expanding, which was later confirmed by observation, so the key counts all three as predictions of the theory.

  63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements: 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests. 2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization. 3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    GM mustard (DMH-11) carries the barnase and barstar genes from a soil bacterium, which are used to make male-sterile lines so that the plant can be cross-pollinated to produce hybrids; the genes do not give pest resistance. It was developed by the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants at Delhi University, not by IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

  64. Consider the following pairs: Terms sometimes seen in news : Context/Topic 1. Belle II experiment : Artificial Intelligence 2. Blockchain technology : Digital/Cryptocurrency 3. CRISPR - Cas9 : Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    Blockchain is the distributed ledger technology behind cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin, so pair 2 is correct. The Belle II experiment, at the KEK laboratory in Japan, is a particle physics experiment, and CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene editing tool, so pairs 1 and 3 are wrong.

  65. Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?

    1. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    2. Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    3. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    4. Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

    Carbon fertilisation is the increase in the rate of photosynthesis and plant growth when there is more carbon dioxide in the air. Rising temperature is global warming and rising ocean acidity is ocean acidification, which are different effects.

  66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

    1. Border Gateway Protocol
    2. Internet of Things
    3. Internet Protocol
    4. Virtual Private Network
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Internet of Things

    The Internet of Things is a network of everyday devices, such as phones, geysers, fridges, mirrors and cars, that have sensors and internet connectivity and can exchange data and act on it automatically. The scenario describes exactly such connected devices working together.

  67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements: 1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units. 2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    India had very little silicon wafer manufacturing in 2018 and relied mostly on imported cells and modules, mainly from China, so statement 1 is wrong. Solar tariffs are discovered through competitive bidding and adopted or fixed by the electricity regulatory commissions, not decided by the Solar Energy Corporation of India, which only runs auctions and buys power.

  68. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

    1. Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
    2. Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
    3. Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
    4. Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

    In the mid-18th century the English East India Company's main exports from Bengal were cotton textiles, raw silk and silk goods, saltpetre (used in gunpowder) and opium. Bullion such as silver was brought into India to pay for these goods, not exported.

  69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

    1. Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
    2. Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
    3. Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
    4. Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement

    The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Gandhi's first satyagraha in India, taken up for indigo cultivators oppressed by European planters under the tinkathia system. Its key significance was that it linked peasant grievances with the national movement.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  70. Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948?

    1. B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
    2. Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
    3. C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
    4. Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

    The Hind Mazdoor Sabha was formed in 1948 by socialist trade union leaders, among them Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta, as an alternative to the communist-led AITUC and the Congress-backed INTUC.

  71. With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to

    1. Buddhism
    2. Jainism
    3. Vaishnavism
    4. Shaivism
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Jainism

    Sthanakvasi is a sub-sect of the Svetambara Jains. Its followers reject idol worship and temple rituals and worship in prayer halls called sthanakas, which gives the sect its name.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism

  72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri. 2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    The buildings of Fatehpur Sikri, including the Buland Darwaza, were built mainly of red sandstone, with marble used only for decoration, so statement 1 is not accepted. The Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow were built of small lakhauri bricks and lime plaster, not red sandstone and marble, so statement 2 is also wrong.

  73. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

    1. Francois Bernier
    2. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
    3. Jean de Thevenot
    4. Abbe Barthelemy Carre
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

    Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a French jewel merchant who travelled to India several times in the 17th century. His travel account describes the diamond mines of Golconda and the trade in Indian diamonds in detail.

  74. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

    1. Avalokiteshvara
    2. Lokesvara
    3. Maitreya
    4. Padmapani
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Maitreya

    In Buddhist belief, Maitreya is the Buddha of the future who will appear on earth to teach the dharma again. Avalokiteshvara, also called Lokesvara or Padmapani, is the bodhisattva of compassion, not the future Buddha.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism

  75. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

    1. To maintain a large standing army at other's expense
    2. To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
    3. To secure a fixed income for the Company
    4. To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

    Under the Subsidiary Alliance (from 1798), Indian rulers had to keep British troops on their territory at their own cost, expel other Europeans such as the French, and accept British control over their foreign relations. Its purpose was to keep out the French threat and build British paramountcy over the Indian States, so securing a fixed income for the Company is the option that does not apply.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Governors-General and Viceroys of British India

  76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India? 1. Charter Act of 1813 2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    The Charter Act of 1813 set aside one lakh rupees a year for education, the General Committee of Public Instruction (1823) was formed to manage that money, and the debate between Orientalists and Anglicists within it was settled by Macaulay's Minute and the English Education Act of 1835. All three steps led to English education in India.

  77. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

    1. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
    2. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
    3. Nainital (Uttarakhand)
    4. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

    Kodaikanal Lake is a man-made lake created in 1863 by damming streams in the Palani Hills. Kolleru is a natural freshwater lake between the Krishna and Godavari deltas, and Nainital and Renuka are natural lakes in the Himalaya.

  78. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. 2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. 3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2 and 3 only

    PMKVY is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment, so statement 1 is wrong. Along with job skills it covers soft skills, entrepreneurship, and financial and digital literacy, and through Recognition of Prior Learning it aligns the skills of the unregulated workforce with the National Skills Qualification Framework.

  79. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha"?

    1. All India Home Rule League
    2. Hindu Mahasabha
    3. South Indian Liberal Federation
    4. The Servants of India Society
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) All India Home Rule League

    In 1920 the All India Home Rule League, then led by Gandhi, changed its name to Swarajya Sabha. This reflected the shift from asking for home rule to demanding swaraj.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  80. Which among the following events happened earliest?

    1. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
    2. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
    3. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
    4. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.

    Dinabandhu Mitra's play Neel Darpan, about the oppression of indigo cultivators, was published in 1860. Satyendranath Tagore cleared the Indian Civil Service examination in 1863, the Arya Samaj was founded in 1875, and Anandamath was published in 1882.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social and Religious Reform Movements

  81. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds? 1. Decreased salinity in the river 2. Pollution of groundwater 3. Lowering of the water-table Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only

    Riverbed sand acts as a natural filter and store of water. Heavy sand mining deepens the river channel and lowers the water table, and removing the filtering layer can allow pollutants to reach groundwater. It does not reduce salinity; near coasts it can even let salt water move further inland.

  82. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements: 1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 3 only

    Organic matter increases a soil's water holding capacity rather than reducing it, and soil is a major store of sulphur and the site of microbial processes in the sulphur cycle. Long-term irrigation, especially with poor drainage, leaves salts behind as water evaporates and can cause salinisation, so only statement 3 is correct.

  83. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

    1. The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
    2. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
    3. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
    4. The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

    PAGE was launched in 2013 as a response to the call made at the UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) held in Rio de Janeiro in 2012, whose outcome document backed the green economy as a tool for sustainable development.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements

  84. "3D printing" has applications in which of the following? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive industry 4. Reconstructive surgeries 5. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 3 and 4 only
    2. 2, 3 and 5 only
    3. 1 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    3D printing builds objects layer by layer from a digital design. It is used to print chocolates and other confectionery, bionic ears and implants, car parts and prototypes, and custom pieces for reconstructive surgery, and it depends on data processing of digital models, so the key accepts all five.

  85. Consider the following statements: 1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. 2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. 3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 only
    4. 1 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Barren Island in the Andaman Sea is the only confirmed active volcano in India. It lies about 140 km north-east of Port Blair in the Andamans, not east of Great Nicobar. After 1991 it erupted again several times, including in 2017, so statement 3 is wrong.

  86. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

    1. Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
    2. It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
    3. Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
    4. None of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

    Prosopis juliflora (vilayati babul) is an invasive shrub that spreads quickly, draws down groundwater and suppresses native plants. It reduces biodiversity where it grows, and there have been efforts, for example in Tamil Nadu, to remove it.

  87. Consider the following statements: 1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. 3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Reef-building corals need warm, clear, shallow water, so most reefs lie in the tropics. Australia, Indonesia and the Philippines together hold more than a third of the world's coral reefs. Coral reefs contain representatives of far more animal phyla (over 30) than tropical rainforests do, so all three statements are correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  88. "Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by

    1. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
    2. The UNEP Secretariat
    3. The UNFCCC Secretariat
    4. The World Meteorological Organization
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat

    Climate Neutral Now was launched by the UNFCCC Secretariat in 2015 under its Momentum for Change programme. It encourages individuals, companies and governments to measure, reduce and offset their greenhouse gas emissions.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements

  89. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: Institution : Founder 1. Sanskrit College at Benaras : William Jones 2. Calcutta Madarsa : Warren Hastings 3. Fort William College : Arthur Wellesley Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    Warren Hastings founded the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781. The Sanskrit College at Benaras was set up in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan, not William Jones. Fort William College (1800) was founded by Governor-General Richard Wellesley, not by his brother Arthur Wellesley, so only pair 2 is correct.

  90. Consider the following pairs: Regions sometimes mentioned in news : Country 1. Catalonia : Spain 2. Crimea : Hungary 3. Mindanao : Philippines 4. Oromia : Nigeria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 2 and 4 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3 only

    Catalonia is a region of Spain that held an independence referendum in 2017, and Mindanao is the large southern island of the Philippines. Crimea is a peninsula on the Black Sea, internationally recognised as part of Ukraine and annexed by Russia in 2014, and Oromia is a region of Ethiopia, not Nigeria.

  91. Consider the following events: 1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India. 2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'. 3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier. 4. Goa became a part of independent India. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

    1. 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
    2. 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
    3. 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
    4. 3 - 1 - 2 - 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4

    Air India was nationalised in 1953, the Imperial Bank of India became the State Bank of India in 1955, E.M.S. Namboodiripad's communist government took office in Kerala in 1957, and Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule in 1961. So the order is 3, 2, 1, 4.

  92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

    1. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
    2. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
    3. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
    4. Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

    In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court held that privacy is a fundamental right. It is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  93. Consider the following: 1. Areca nut 2. Barley 3. Coffee 4. Finger millet 5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum 7. Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

    1. 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
    2. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
    3. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

    The CCEA announces Minimum Support Prices for notified crops such as cereals (including barley), millets (including finger millet or ragi), pulses and oilseeds (including groundnut and sesamum). Plantation crops and spices such as areca nut, coffee and turmeric are not covered by MSP.

  94. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

    1. Arunachal Pradesh
    2. Manipur
    3. Meghalaya
    4. Nagaland
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Arunachal Pradesh

    Pakhui (Pakke) Wildlife Sanctuary, also a Tiger Reserve, is in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is known for its hornbill conservation work.

  95. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: 1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. 3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    PSLV mainly places Earth observation satellites in polar sun-synchronous orbits, while GSLV is meant mainly for communication satellites in geosynchronous transfer orbit. Only geostationary satellites appear fixed in the sky, so statement 2 does not fit PSLV launches. GSLV Mk III has three stages (two solid strap-on boosters, a liquid core stage and a cryogenic upper stage), not four.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: ISRO Space Missions

  96. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements: 1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    In April 2017 the five associate banks of SBI and Bharatiya Mahila Bank were merged into the State Bank of India, so statement 2 is correct. Government capital infusion into public sector banks varied from year to year over the decade rather than rising steadily, so statement 1 is wrong.

  97. Consider the following items: 1. Cereal grains hulled 2. Chicken eggs cooked 3. Fish processed and canned 4. Newspapers containing advertising material Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Under the GST exemption list, hulled cereal grains, birds' eggs in shell whether fresh, preserved or cooked, and printed newspapers are exempt. Fish that has been processed and canned is a packaged product and attracts GST, so only items 1, 2 and 4 are exempt.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms

  98. Consider the following statements: 1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. 2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights. 3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only

    Section 2(b) of the Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines "critical wildlife habitat". The Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh became the first community in India to receive habitat rights under this Act. Habitat rights are recognised through the Gram Sabha and district-level committees under the Act, which is administered by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not declared by the Environment Ministry.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India

  99. Consider the following: 1. Birds 2. Dust blowing 3. Rain 4. Wind blowing Which of the above spread plant diseases?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Plant pathogens such as fungal spores, bacteria and viruses are carried from plant to plant in many ways. Birds can carry them on their bodies, wind and blowing dust carry spores over long distances, and rain splash spreads them to nearby plants, so all four can spread plant diseases.

  100. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: 1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. 2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. 3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only

    The NPOP is run by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Rural Development, and APEDA, which works under that ministry, acts as its secretariat. Sikkim was declared India's first fully organic State in 2016.

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