UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2022, General Studies Paper I

Series A. Questions and answers from the official UPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक UPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

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All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
1. Asian Development Bank
2. International Monetary Fund
3. United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
4. World Bank
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) International Monetary Fund
The Rapid Financing Instrument and the Rapid Credit Facility are emergency lending windows of the International Monetary Fund. They give quick financial help to member countries facing urgent balance of payments needs, with the Rapid Credit Facility offering concessional loans to low-income countries.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3 only
A rise in NEER means the rupee has strengthened against a basket of currencies, so statement 1 is correct. A rise in REER means Indian goods have become relatively costlier, which hurts trade competitiveness, so statement 2 is wrong. REER adjusts NEER for relative prices, so higher inflation in India than abroad pushes REER away from NEER, making statement 3 correct.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
To fight high inflation the RBI sells government securities to absorb money from the system; buying them would add liquidity, so statement 1 is wrong. Selling dollars supports a falling rupee. Lower interest rates in the USA or EU push foreign capital towards India, and the RBI buys the incoming dollars to stop the rupee from rising too sharply.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools
With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements: 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Common Framework for Debt Treatments was agreed by the G20 along with the Paris Club of creditor countries in November 2020. Its purpose is to help low-income countries whose debt has become unsustainable restructure it in a coordinated way, so both statements are correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only
Because the principal or interest of an IIB is adjusted for inflation, investors are shielded from inflation risk and accept a lower coupon, which lets the government borrow more cheaply. Statement 3 is wrong because interest and capital gains on IIBs are taxed under the normal income tax rules.
With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. 2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India allows FDI only in the marketplace model of e-commerce, so a foreign-owned platform cannot hold inventory and sell its own goods. The 2018 rules also bar a vendor in which the marketplace or its group companies hold equity from selling on that platform, so this is a prohibition rather than a limited degree of ownership, and neither statement is correct.
Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only
The real sector is the part of the economy that produces actual goods and services, such as farming and manufacturing. Bank lending and the issue of rupee-denominated bonds abroad are financial activities that belong to the financial sector, not the real sector.
Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India?
1. An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
2. A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
3. An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
4. A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
An indirect transfer happens when shares of a foreign company are sold abroad but those shares get most of their value from assets in India. This was at the heart of the Vodafone tax dispute and the 2012 retrospective tax amendment, which India withdrew in 2021.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only
Spending to acquire new technology creates a long-lasting asset for the firm, so it is capital expenditure. Debt and equity are ways of raising money, not types of spending, so statement 2 is wrong.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
Household savings reach the government through bank deposits invested in government securities, small savings schemes, provident funds and insurance, so statement 1 is correct. Dated government securities sold through auctions at market-related rates make up the largest part of the Centre's internal debt, so statement 2 is also correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 3 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1, 2 and 4
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 followed the H.N. Sanyal Committee report, and Articles 129 and 215 let the Supreme Court and High Courts punish contempt of themselves. Parliament can legislate on contempt through entries in the Union and Concurrent Lists. Statement 3 is wrong because civil and criminal contempt are defined in the 1971 Act, not in the Constitution.
With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
Under the Advocates Act, 1961 the Bar Council of India can promote legal education and lay down its standards, and it recognises the universities and law colleges whose degrees qualify a person to enrol as an advocate, so statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong: an advocate is an individual enrolled with a State Bar Council, so a legal firm as such is not recognised as an advocate.
Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
Under Article 368 an amendment bill can be introduced in either House without the President's prior recommendation, so statement 1 is wrong. Since the 24th Amendment (1971) the President must give assent to a duly passed amendment bill, and each House must pass it separately by a special majority, with no joint sitting to resolve a deadlock.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments
Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
The Constitution does not classify ministers into ranks; the categories of Cabinet Minister, Minister of State and Deputy Minister come from convention and practice. Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment (2003), caps the Council of Ministers including the Prime Minister at 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, so only the Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion. A Proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both Houses, and impeachment of the President also needs both Houses, one framing the charge and the other investigating it.
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
Under the Tenth Schedule a nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking the seat; it is joining after six months that leads to disqualification, so statement 1 is wrong. The Schedule sets no deadline for the Speaker or Chairman to decide a defection petition, which is why courts have repeatedly urged timely decisions.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Article 88 gives the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of either House to Ministers and the Attorney General, not to the Solicitor General, so statement 1 is wrong. The Constitution does not require the Attorney General to resign with the government; the Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President, and resigning on a change of government is only a convention.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Mandamus orders the performance of a public duty, so it can issue against a private body only when that body performs a public duty. A government company can be 'State' under Article 12 and mandamus can lie against it, so statement 2 is wrong. For quo warranto, the petitioner need not be personally aggrieved, so any interested member of the public may seek it.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Fundamental Rights Remedies: The Five Writs
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 3 only
The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is voluntary: hospitals choose whether to join, and citizens choose whether to create a health ID (ABHA) and share their records. Its digital health records are designed to be portable, so a patient's data can be accessed by providers anywhere in the country.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2 and 4 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 3 only
Rule 8 of the Lok Sabha Rules says the Deputy Speaker is elected on a date fixed by the Speaker, and when presiding the Deputy Speaker has all the powers of the Speaker, with no appeal against the rulings. There is no rule tying the post to the ruling or main opposition party, and the Speaker does not move the motion for the election, so statements 2 and 4 are wrong.
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
1. Cotton
2. Rice
3. Sugarcane
4. Wheat
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Rice
Flooded paddy fields create oxygen-poor soil in which microbes release methane, and the heavy use of nitrogen fertiliser in rice fields also releases nitrous oxide. This makes rice cultivation the most important crop source of both gases.
"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
SRI transplants single young seedlings at wide spacing, so far less seed is needed. Keeping fields alternately wet and dry instead of continuously flooded cuts methane emissions, and using less irrigation water means less electricity for pumping, so all three results follow.
Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?
1. Lake Victoria
2. Lake Faguibine
3. Lake Oguta
4. Lake Volta
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Lake Faguibine
Lake Faguibine in northern Mali, once one of the largest lakes in West Africa, dried up after repeated droughts from the 1970s and is now largely desert. Lake Victoria is in East Africa, while Lake Volta (Ghana) and Lake Oguta (Nigeria) still hold water.
Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?
1. Cauvery
2. Manjira
3. Pennar
4. Tungabhadra
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Pennar
The Gandikota gorge in Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh was cut by the Pennar (Penna) river through the Erramala hills. It is often called the Grand Canyon of India.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources
Consider the following pairs: Peak : Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa : Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi : Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek : Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
Nanda Devi lies in the Kumaon Himalaya of Uttarakhand. Namcha Barwa is at the far eastern end of the Himalaya in Tibet, near the great bend of the Yarlung Tsangpo (Brahmaputra), not in Garhwal, and Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo Hills in Meghalaya, not part of the Sikkim Himalaya.
The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
1. Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
2. Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
3. Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
4. The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
The Levant is the land along the eastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea, roughly covering present-day Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine and Jordan. The North African coast from Egypt to Morocco is usually called the Maghreb and Egypt, not the Levant.
Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?
1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
Afghanistan's northern neighbours are Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan. Kyrgyzstan is separated from it by Tajikistan, and Azerbaijan lies west of the Caspian Sea, so neither shares a border with Afghanistan.
With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Monazite is a phosphate mineral that yields rare earth elements and contains thorium, a nuclear fuel source, so it is a prescribed substance whose processing and export in India are reserved for government bodies such as IREL (India) Limited. It is found in beach sands of particular stretches, mainly in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, not along the entire coast, so statement 3 is wrong.
In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
1. First half of the month of June
2. Second half of the month of June
3. First half of the month of July
4. Second half of the month of July
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Second half of the month of June
The summer solstice in the northern hemisphere falls around 21 June, when the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer. That day has the longest daylight of the year, which places it in the second half of June.
Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake : Location 1. Hokera Wetland : Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland : Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake : Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake : Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two pairs
Renuka Wetland in Himachal Pradesh and Rudrasagar Lake in Tripura are correctly matched. Hokera Wetland is near Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab, and Sasthamkotta Lake is in Kollam district of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu, so only two pairs are correct.
Consider the following: 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four are Indian digital public platforms built using open-source technology. For example, DIKSHA runs on the open-source Sunbird platform, and the source code of Aarogya Setu was released publicly in 2020.
With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Web 3.0 is the idea of a decentralised internet built on blockchain, where users hold and control their own data instead of handing it to large platforms. It allows blockchain-based social networks and applications that are run collectively by users rather than owned by a single corporation, so all three statements are correct.
With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements: 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. 2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. 3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
SaaS delivers software over the internet, and most SaaS products let customers configure the interface and data fields to suit their needs. Because the software and data sit in the cloud, they can be reached from any device including mobiles, and web-based email services like Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are everyday examples of SaaS.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media?
1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System places a warhead into a low Earth orbit and then brings it down over the target before a full orbit is completed. Since it can approach from any direction, it is hard for early-warning systems to track, and it came into the news after reports of a Chinese test in 2021.
Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned?
1. Cloud Services
2. Quantum Computing
3. Visible Light Communication Technologies
4. Wireless Communication Technologies
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Quantum Computing
A qubit, or quantum bit, is the basic unit of information in a quantum computer. Unlike an ordinary bit that is either 0 or 1, a qubit can exist in a superposition of both states.
Consider the following communication technologies: 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Short-range devices are low-power radio transmitters that cover only small distances. Wireless CCTV links, RFID tags and readers, and Wi-Fi local area networks are all treated as short-range devices, so all three qualify.
Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
A biofilm is a community of microbes stuck to a surface inside a protective slimy matrix. Biofilms grow on implants such as catheters and artificial joints, on food and food-processing equipment, and the protective matrix makes the microbes far more resistant to antibiotics, so all three statements are correct.
Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3
Probiotics are live beneficial microbes, mostly bacteria such as Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, and some yeasts such as Saccharomyces boulardii. Many of these organisms naturally live in the human gut, so statement 2 is wrong, and lactic acid bacteria help break down lactose, the sugar in milk.
In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
Covishield is the Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine, which uses a harmless chimpanzee adenovirus as a viral vector, not mRNA, so statement 1 is wrong. Sputnik V also uses adenovirus vectors, and Covaxin by Bharat Biotech is made from whole inactivated (killed) coronavirus.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens
If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
3. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
A strong solar storm disturbs the Earth's magnetic field and upper atmosphere, which can upset GPS signals, induce damaging currents in power grids, produce auroras far from the poles, increase drag on satellites and black out high-frequency radio near the poles. It does not trigger tsunamis or set off forest fires.
"Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
1. Database created by coalition of research organisations
2. Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
3. Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"
4. Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis run by research organisations, chiefly Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute. It rates countries' climate pledges and policies against the Paris Agreement goals and is not part of the IPCC, the UNFCCC, UNEP or the World Bank.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements
Consider the following statements: 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition". Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1, 2, 4 and 5
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
The Climate Group is a non-profit that builds and runs business and government networks such as RE100, EP100 and the Under2 Coalition. EP100 is a group of companies, including several Indian firms, committed to smarter energy use, and it was launched by the Climate Group with the Alliance to Save Energy, not the International Energy Agency. The secretariat of the Under2 Coalition is the Climate Group itself, so statements 2 and 5 are wrong.
"If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
1. The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
2. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
3. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
4. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Kidneys clean the blood by filtering out wastes, and wetlands do something similar for water. Their plants trap and absorb heavy metals, excess nutrients and other pollutants, so the water leaving a wetland is cleaner than the water entering it.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 2 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1 and 4 only
The 2021 WHO guidelines set PM2.5 limits of 15 µg/m³ for the 24-hour mean and 5 µg/m³ for the annual mean, and ground-level ozone is known to trigger asthma. Ozone forms through sunlight-driven reactions, so it peaks in sunny, hot weather rather than inclement weather. It is the finer PM2.5, not PM10, that can cross the lung barrier into the blood.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 2
Gucchi is the morel mushroom, a fungus that grows wild in Himalayan forests of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. It is gathered from the wild rather than commercially cultivated, which is one reason it is so expensive, so statement 3 is wrong.
With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements: 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties. 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 3
PET, sold as polyester fibre, is commonly blended with wool and cotton, and PET bottles are widely recycled into fibre, sheets and new containers. Burning PET releases carbon dioxide, so statement 4 is wrong, and PET is not regarded as suitable for storing every kind of alcoholic beverage, so the sweeping claim in statement 2 is also wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health
Which of the following is not a bird?
1. Golden Mahseer
2. Indian Nightjar
3. Spoonbill
4. White Ibis
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Golden Mahseer
The Golden Mahseer is a large freshwater fish of Himalayan rivers. The Indian Nightjar, the spoonbill and the White Ibis are all birds.
Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
4. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Alfalfa, chickpea and clover are legumes, whose root nodules host Rhizobium bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen. Amaranth, purslane and spinach are not legumes and do not fix nitrogen in this way.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
"Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?
1. Restoration of damaged coral reefs
2. Development of building materials using plant residues
3. Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
4. Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
Biorock technology passes a weak electric current through a steel frame placed in seawater, which makes limestone minerals build up on the frame. Coral fragments attached to it grow faster, so the method is used to restore damaged reefs, including a project in the Gulf of Kachchh.
The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:
1. Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
2. Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
3. Creation of mini forests in urban areas
4. Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
The Miyawaki method, developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, plants many native species very close together. The saplings grow quickly into dense, self-sustaining mini forests, which makes the method popular for greening small urban plots.
In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 3 and 4
Under the dyarchy of the 1919 Act, reserved subjects such as administration of justice, police, land revenue, irrigation and finance stayed with the Governor and his executive council. Transferred subjects such as local self-government, education and public health were handed to Indian ministers responsible to the legislature.
In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:
1. Clothing
2. Coins
3. Ornaments
4. Weapons
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Coins
The fanam was a small coin, usually of gold, used widely in south India, including under the Vijayanagara rulers. It was a fraction of the larger gold pagoda (varaha).
Consider the following freedom fighters: 1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 3 only
Rash Behari Bose worked closely with the Ghadar revolutionaries and helped plan the failed Ghadar uprising of February 1915. Barindra Kumar Ghosh was a leader of the Jugantar group in Bengal tried in the Alipore Bomb Case, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was linked with the Anushilan Samiti and the Hindustan Republican Association, not the Ghadar Party.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States. 2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
The Cripps proposals of 1942 said the British Indian members of the constitution-making body would be elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation, while only the princely states would nominate their members, so statement 1 is wrong. Any province unwilling to accept the new constitution could stay out and make a separate agreement with Britain, which Congress saw as opening the door to partition.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: 1. Nettipakarana 2. Parishishtaparvan 3. Avadanashataka 4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts?
1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 4 only
Parishishtaparvan, written by Hemachandra, and the Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana, on the 63 great figures of Jaina tradition, are Jaina works. The Nettipakarana is a Pali Buddhist text and the Avadanashataka is a Buddhist collection of avadana stories in Sanskrit.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism
With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: Historical person : Known as 1. Aryadeva : Jaina scholar 2. Dignaga : Buddhist scholar 3. Nathamuni : Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. None of the pairs
2. Only one pair
3. Only two pairs
4. All three pairs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only two pairs
Dignaga was a Buddhist logician and Nathamuni was an early Sri Vaishnava teacher who compiled the hymns of the Alvars, so pairs 2 and 3 are correct. Aryadeva was a Buddhist philosopher of the Madhyamaka school and a disciple of Nagarjuna, not a Jaina scholar.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. 2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. 3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
The Mongols first reached India under Chinggis Khan around 1221, during the reign of Iltutmish, so statement 1 is wrong. Under Ala-ud-din Khalji, Mongol armies led by Qutlugh Khwaja (1299) and later Targhi (1303) reached Delhi and laid siege to it. The official key treats statement 3 as incorrect.
With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran"?
1. Arab merchants
2. Qalandars
3. Persian calligraphists
4. Sayyids
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Sayyids
Kulah-Daran means 'cap wearers'. In the Delhi Sultanate the Sayyids, who claimed descent from the Prophet, wore a distinctive pointed cap and were known by this name.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers. 2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. 3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
Albuquerque took Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510, and in 1639 the English got the site of Madras from Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka, a local chief under the Vijayanagara ruler. Statement 1 is wrong because the Dutch got their east coast bases such as Masulipatnam and Pulicat from rulers like the Golconda Sultan and local Nayakas, not from the Gajapatis of Odisha.
According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct? 1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment. 2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free. 3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master's son. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
The Arthashastra protects a female slave who bears her master's child: she is to be freed, and the son is to be treated as free and given the legal standing of the master's son. UPSC's official key accepts statements 2 and 3 only.
Consider the following statements: 1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. 2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
UPSC dropped this question from evaluation.UPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।
UPSC dropped this question from evaluation, so no answer is keyed. For background: capital flight is a rapid outflow of foreign capital from a country, and External Commercial Borrowings are loans that Indian firms raise from foreign lenders, usually in foreign currency, so their cost in rupees depends on the exchange rate.
Consider the following States: 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
1. Only one State
2. Only two States
3. Only three States
4. All four States
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) All four States
Besides the big producers Assam and West Bengal, tea is grown in many smaller areas, such as the Munnar and Wayanad hills of Kerala, the Kangra valley of Himachal Pradesh and the hills of Tripura. UPSC's key counts all four listed States, including Andhra Pradesh, as tea-producing.
Consider the following statements: 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
Credit rating agencies in India are registered and regulated by SEBI under its 1999 regulations, not by the RBI, so statement 1 is wrong. ICRA Limited is a public limited company listed on the stock exchanges, and Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency based in Bengaluru.
With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. 2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only
The Banks Board Bureau, set up in 2016, was headed by a chairperson appointed by the government (its first chairman was former CAG Vinod Rai), not the RBI Governor. It recommended candidates for top posts in public sector banks and financial institutions and advised the banks on strategy and on raising capital.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. 2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2
Investors value the right to convert a bond into shares, so issuers can offer a lower coupon on convertible bonds than on ordinary bonds. Since share prices tend to rise along with general prices over time, the conversion option also gives the holder some protection against inflation.
Consider the following: 1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 2. Missile Technology Control Regime 3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation India is a member of which of the above?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
India is a founding member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank and its second largest shareholder. It joined the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016 and became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation in 2017.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Consider the following statements: 1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. 2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system. 3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. 4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers. 5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 2 and 4
2. 3 and 5
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 3 and 4
Vietnam has grown fast for years on export-led manufacturing, closely tied to global supply chains, helped by low labour costs and a stable currency. It is a one-party state ruled by the Communist Party, so statement 2 is wrong, and there is no basis for calling its e-service sector the most productive in the Indo-Pacific.
In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
1. Department of Consumer Affairs
2. Expenditure Management Commission
3. Financial Stability and Development Council
4. Reserve Bank of India
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Reserve Bank of India
Under the amended RBI Act, 1934 the Reserve Bank of India follows a flexible inflation targeting framework, and its Monetary Policy Committee sets the policy rate to keep CPI inflation at 4 percent within a band of 2 to 6 percent. Price stability is therefore the RBI's main mandate.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only
NFTs are unique tokens recorded on a blockchain that can stand for ownership of digital or physical assets such as art or property. Being non-fungible, no two are equal or interchangeable, so they cannot be swapped at equivalence like money and do not work as a medium of exchange.
Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs : States 1. Ghataprabha : Telangana 2. Gandhi Sagar : Madhya Pradesh 3. Indira Sagar : Andhra Pradesh 4. Maithon : Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only three pairs
Gandhi Sagar on the Chambal is correctly placed in Madhya Pradesh. Ghataprabha reservoir is in Karnataka, Indira Sagar on the Narmada is in Madhya Pradesh, and Maithon dam on the Barakar is in Jharkhand, so three pairs are wrong.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources
In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?
1. Central Statistics Office
2. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
3. Labour Bureau
4. National Technical Manpower Information System
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Labour Bureau
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, collects and publishes statistics on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs. It also compiles the Consumer Price Index numbers for industrial workers.
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India. 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The Coal Controller's Organisation, an attached office of the Ministry of Coal, is the main source of official coal statistics, monitors the development of captive coal and lignite blocks, and hears objections to land acquisition notices under the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957. Ensuring timely delivery of coal to end users is not one of its functions.
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
1. This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
2. This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
3. This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
4. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
In a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor can make regulations that prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among Scheduled Tribes, which protects tribal land from passing to non-tribals. Autonomous self-governing councils are a feature of the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
Consider the following statements: 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The India Sanitation Coalition was launched in 2015 at FICCI as a multi-stakeholder platform of businesses, civil society and others; it is not funded by the Government of India and the WHO, so statement 1 is wrong. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is the premier institute of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs for research and solutions on urban issues.
Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
1. Central Water Commission
2. Central Ground Water Board
3. Central Ground Water Authority
4. National Water Development Agency
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Central Ground Water Authority
The Central Ground Water Authority was set up under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control groundwater development in India. The Central Water Commission, the Central Ground Water Board and the National Water Development Agency were created by government resolutions, not under this Act.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements: 1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision. 2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year. 3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 3 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 3 only
The Credentials Committee is a nine-member body appointed by the UN General Assembly at the start of each regular session, not by the Security Council. It examines the credentials of member states' representatives and reports to the General Assembly, which approves the report; it does not follow a March, June and September meeting cycle.
Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code'?
1. It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
2. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
3. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
4. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
The Polar Code is the International Maritime Organization's International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters, in force since 2017. It sets rules on ship design, equipment, crew training and pollution prevention for ships sailing in Arctic and Antarctic waters.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements: 1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States. 2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly. 3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The General Assembly grants observer status to non-member states such as the Holy See and the State of Palestine, and also to many intergovernmental organisations such as the African Union. Permanent observers may keep permanent observer missions at UN Headquarters in New York, so all three statements are correct.
With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. 3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1 and 4
The Tea Board is a statutory body set up under the Tea Act, 1953, and it has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow to promote Indian tea. It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture, and its head office is in Kolkata, not Bengaluru.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing"?
1. Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
2. Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
3. Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
4. Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
Greenwashing is misleading marketing in which a company makes its products, services or practices look more environmentally friendly than they really are. It relies on vague or false green claims rather than real environmental benefits.
Consider the following statements: 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. 2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth's surface and thus cause warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are reversed. Thin high clouds such as cirrus let most sunlight through but trap outgoing infrared radiation, so they tend to warm the surface, while thick low clouds reflect much of the incoming sunlight and have a net cooling effect.
Consider the following statements: 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya. 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi. 3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2 and 3
Bidibidi is one of the world's largest refugee settlements, but it is in north-western Uganda, not Kenya, so statement 1 is wrong. It hosts refugees from the South Sudanese civil war, while the Dadaab camps in eastern Kenya house mainly Somalis who fled conflict in their country.
Consider the following countries: 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3. Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 5
4. 3, 4 and 5
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2 and 5
The Organization of Turkic States, renamed from the Turkic Council in 2021, has Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan as full members. Armenia, Croatia and Romania are not Turkic-speaking states and are not members.
Consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
Cochin International Airport in Kerala became the world's first fully solar-powered airport in 2015. At the time of the exam the largest solar park in India was the Bhadla park in Rajasthan, not one in Gujarat, and the largest floating solar plant was at Ramagundam in Telangana, not in Goa.
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. 3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3
UNCLOS lets a coastal state set a territorial sea of up to 12 nautical miles from its baselines (Article 3), and ships of all states, coastal or land-locked, have the right of innocent passage through it (Article 17). Article 57 limits the Exclusive Economic Zone to 200 nautical miles from the baselines, so all three statements are correct.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?
1. It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
2. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
3. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
4. Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man's land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
The Senkaku Islands are a group of small uninhabited islands in the East China Sea, administered by Japan but claimed by China, which calls them the Diaoyu Islands, and also by Taiwan. They are natural islands, not artificial ones, and the dispute has not been decided by the International Court of Justice.
Consider the following pairs: Country : Important reason for being in the news recently 1. Chad : Setting up of permanent military base by China 2. Guinea : Suspension of Constitution and Government by military 3. Lebanon : Severe and prolonged economic depression 4. Tunisia : Suspension of Parliament by President How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only three pairs
In September 2021 Guinea's military seized power and suspended the constitution, Lebanon was in an economic crisis the World Bank described as one of the worst in modern times, and Tunisia's President Kais Saied suspended Parliament in July 2021. China's only overseas military base is in Djibouti, not Chad, so three pairs are correct.
Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news : Country 1. Anatolia : Turkey 2. Amhara : Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado : Spain 4. Catalonia : Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two pairs
Anatolia is the Asian part of Turkey and Amhara is a region of Ethiopia, so the first two pairs are correct. Cabo Delgado is a province of northern Mozambique affected by insurgency, and Catalonia is a region of Spain, not Italy.
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only
Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 a protected species gets the same legal protection wherever it is found, inside or outside protected areas. The Act does not make all wild animals the sole property of the government; Section 39 makes them government property only in specific cases, such as when hunted or found dead. A protected animal may be captured or killed only when the Chief Wildlife Warden is satisfied that it has actually become dangerous to human life, so mere apprehension is not enough.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India
Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
1. Ant
2. Cockroach
3. Crab
4. Spider
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Ant
Leaf-cutter ants and some related ants grow fungus gardens inside their nests. They feed cut leaves to the fungus and then eat the fungus, which is a well-known example of farming by insects.
Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts : Location in the State of 1. Dhauli : Odisha 2. Erragudi : Andhra Pradesh 3. Jaugada : Madhya Pradesh 4. Kalsi : Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two pairs
Dhauli near Bhubaneswar is in Odisha and Erragudi in Kurnool district is in Andhra Pradesh, so these two pairs are correct. Jaugada is in Ganjam district of Odisha, not Madhya Pradesh, and Kalsi is near Dehradun in Uttarakhand, not Karnataka.
Consider the following pairs: King : Dynasty 1. Nannuka : Chandela 2. Jayashakti : Paramara 3. Nagabhata II : Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja : Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two pairs
Nannuka founded the Chandela dynasty and Nagabhata II was a Gurjara-Pratihara ruler, so pairs 1 and 3 are correct. Jayashakti was an early Chandela ruler, not a Paramara, and the famous kings named Bhoja belonged to the Pratihara and Paramara dynasties, not the Rashtrakutas.
Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
1. Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
2. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
3. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
4. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
Sangam poets knew of the varna order and mention groups such as brahmanas and arasar (kings), though Tamil society was not organised strictly on varna lines. The poems are rich in details of material life and celebrate heroism and the warrior ethic, especially in the puram poems, and they treat magical forces as a real part of life rather than calling them irrational.
"Yogavāsistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
1. Akbar
2. Humayun
3. Shahjahan
4. Aurangzeb
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) Akbar
Nizamuddin Panipati made a Persian translation of the Yoga Vasistha in the reign of Akbar. Akbar's court sponsored many such translations of Sanskrit works, including the Mahabharata, which was rendered into Persian as the Razmnama.
The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?
1. The best means of salvation was devotion.
2. Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
3. Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
4. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
Ramanuja, the 11th to 12th century founder of Vishishtadvaita, taught that intense devotion (bhakti) to Vishnu and complete surrender to God were the best way to salvation. The Statue of Equality at Hyderabad, inaugurated in February 2022, honours him.
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? 1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. 2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. 3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only
Somnath in Gujarat is regarded as the first of the twelve Jyotirlingas, and Al-Biruni described the temple in his account of India written after Mahmud of Ghazni's raid. The pran pratishtha of the rebuilt temple in 1951 was performed by President Rajendra Prasad, not S. Radhakrishnan.
Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
1. They protect the body from environmental allergens.
2. They alleviate the body's pain and inflammation.
3. They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
4. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
B cells and T cells are lymphocytes that form the adaptive immune system. B cells make antibodies and T cells kill infected cells and coordinate the immune response, together protecting the body against disease-causing pathogens.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Human Body: Key Facts
Consider the following statements: 1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. 3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 2 and 3
Nanoparticles also occur naturally, for example in volcanic ash, sea spray and smoke from forest fires, so statement 1 is wrong. Metal oxide nanoparticles such as titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are used in sunscreens and other cosmetics, and some nanoparticles released from commercial products can harm human health.
Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: 1. assess the age of a plant or animal. 2. distinguish among species that look alike. 3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (d) 2 and 3
DNA barcoding identifies a species by reading a short, standard stretch of its DNA. This lets scientists tell apart species that look alike and detect unwanted or adulterant plant or animal material in processed food, but it says nothing about an organism's age.
Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 4 only
Acid rain forms when sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water vapour in the air to form sulphuric acid and nitric acid. Carbon monoxide and ozone are harmful pollutants but are not the main causes of acid rain.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2022, General Studies Paper I

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