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UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2023, General Studies Paper I

Series A. Questions and answers from the official UPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक UPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real UPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

  1. Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    Only statement 1 is correct: the Jhelum flows into and out of Wular Lake in Kashmir. Kolleru Lake lies between the Krishna and Godavari deltas and is fed mainly by seasonal streams such as the Budameru and Tammileru, not directly by the Krishna. Kanwar Lake in Begusarai, Bihar is an oxbow lake linked to the meandering of the Burhi Gandak, not the Gandak.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources

  2. Consider the following pairs: Port : Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India 3. Visakhapatnam Port : Largest container port in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. All three pairs
    4. None of the pairs
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two pairs

    Kamarajar Port (Ennore) near Chennai was the first major port in India set up as a public company, and Mundra in Gujarat, run by the Adani group, is the largest privately owned port, so pairs 1 and 2 are correct. The largest container port in India is Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva) near Mumbai, not Visakhapatnam.

  3. Consider the following trees: 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Mahua and teak are typical trees of India's tropical deciduous forests and shed their leaves in the dry season. Jackfruit is an evergreen tree, so only two of the three are deciduous.

  4. Consider the following statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    India has a larger arable area than China, so statement 1 is correct. China, however, irrigates a larger share of its cropland and gets much higher average yields per hectare, so statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

  5. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

    1. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
    2. Marakkanam Salt Pans
    3. Naupada Swamp
    4. Rann of Kutch
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Rann of Kutch

    The Rann of Kutch was once a shallow arm of the Arabian Sea. As the sea level fell and the land rose over time, the sea withdrew and left behind the vast salt marsh seen today, which floods seasonally.

  6. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

    1. Aluminium
    2. Copper
    3. Iron
    4. Titanium
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Titanium

    Ilmenite (iron titanium oxide) and rutile (titanium dioxide) are the main ores of titanium. They occur in beach sand deposits along the coasts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Odisha.

  7. About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

    1. Argentina
    2. Botswana
    3. the Democratic Republic of the Congo
    4. Kazakhstan
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo

    The Democratic Republic of the Congo mines roughly 70 to 75 percent of the world's cobalt, mostly from its Katanga copper belt. Cobalt is a key ingredient in many lithium-ion battery cathodes.

  8. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

    1. Cameroon
    2. Nigeria
    3. South Sudan
    4. Uganda
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Cameroon

    The Congo Basin spreads over the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, Gabon, Equatorial Guinea and southern Cameroon. Nigeria, South Sudan and Uganda lie outside it.

  9. Consider the following statements: 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    All three statements are wrong. Amarkantak lies where the Vindhya and Satpura (Maikal) ranges meet, not the Sahyadri. The Biligirirangan Hills in Karnataka lie where the Western and Eastern Ghats meet, and the Seshachalam Hills in Andhra Pradesh are part of the Eastern Ghats.

  10. With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    None is correct. The East-West Corridor is a separate part of the National Highways Development Project and runs from Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. The Trilateral Highway runs from Moreh to Mae Sot in Thailand, and the proposed BCIM corridor links Kolkata, not Varanasi, with Kunming.

  11. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    Coal-fired plants produce the bulk of India's electricity, so Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong: power reactors run on natural uranium (as in India's pressurised heavy water reactors) or low-enriched uranium of about 3 to 5 percent, not uranium enriched to 60 percent.

  12. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    Marsupials such as kangaroos and opossums occur naturally only in Australasia and the Americas, so none is native to India and Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong because marsupials live in many habitats, including deserts, rainforests and woodlands, and many coexist with predators.

  13. 'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

    1. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
    2. The United Nations Environment Programme
    3. The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
    4. The World Wide Fund for Nature
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

    The Invasive Species Specialist Group is one of the specialist groups of the IUCN Species Survival Commission. It manages the Global Invasive Species Database, a free online resource on invasive alien species.

  14. Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    The Malabar civet of the Western Ghats is a strictly nocturnal animal. The lion-tailed macaque is a day-active, tree-dwelling primate, and the official key counts only one of the three as nocturnal.

  15. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

    1. Butterflies
    2. Dragonflies
    3. Honeybees
    4. Wasps
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Honeybees

    Honeybee foragers perform a figure-of-eight waggle dance in the hive. The angle of the waggle run shows the direction of the food relative to the sun, and its length shows the distance.

  16. Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) All four

    All four are true. Mushrooms such as reishi and shiitake are used medicinally, psilocybin mushrooms are psychoactive, some fungi produce compounds that kill insects, and species like the honey fungus and some Mycena glow in the dark.

  17. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Indian squirrels, such as the palm squirrel and the giant squirrels, are tree dwellers that nest in trees and tree hollows rather than in burrows in the ground. They are omnivorous, eating seeds, fruits, insects and sometimes eggs, and the key accepts only this one statement as correct.

  18. Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) All three

    All three describe extremophiles. Hyperthermophilic archaea near deep-sea vents grow above 100 degrees Celsius, psychrophiles grow in sub-zero brines and ice, and acidophiles such as Picrophilus thrive at a pH near 0 to 1.

  19. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

    1. Fishing cat
    2. Orangutan
    3. Otter
    4. Sloth bear
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Orangutan

    Orangutans are well known tool users: they shape sticks to pry insects, honey and seeds out of tree holes. Sloth bears suck termites out with their lips, and otters use stones, not stick tools.

  20. Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only three

    Hydrofluorocarbons replaced ozone-depleting gases as aerosol propellants, foam-blowing agents and fire-suppression agents, besides their main use as refrigerants. They are not used in making lubricants, so the answer is three.

  21. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    Statement-I has it the wrong way round: interest distributed by an InvIT is taxable in the hands of investors, while dividends are generally exempt when the underlying company has not opted for the concessional tax regime. Statement-II is correct, as the Finance Act 2021 allowed InvITs and REITs to be treated as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act so that lenders can enforce security against them.

  22. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

    After the pandemic, inflation surged and the US Federal Reserve, RBI, ECB and many other central banks raised policy rates. They did so because they believe that tightening monetary policy cools demand and brings down consumer price inflation, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools

  23. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

    Carbon markets, backed by Article 6 of the Paris Agreement and by national trading schemes, are expected to become one of the most widely used climate tools, so Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong: carbon markets mainly let companies and countries trade emission credits among themselves, moving money from those who emit more to those who cut emissions, not from the private sector to the State.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements

  24. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?

    1. Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
    2. Oversight of settlement and payment systems
    3. Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
    4. Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations'

    Sterilization means neutralising the effect of foreign exchange inflows or outflows on domestic money supply. The RBI does this mainly through open market operations, for example selling government securities to absorb the extra rupees created when it buys dollars.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools

  25. Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Capital markets deal in long-term funds, so the government bond market and the stock market belong to them. The call money market and the treasury bill market deal in instruments of less than a year and are parts of the money market.

  26. Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?

    1. Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
    2. Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
    3. Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
    4. A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

    Under 'Small Farmer Large Field', small and marginal farmers in a locality keep ownership of their own plots but group together to carry out operations such as sowing, spraying and harvesting in a coordinated way, gaining economies of scale like a single large farm. Option (c) describes land leasing and option (d) describes contract farming.

  27. Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) All three

    Nigerseed is one of the kharif crops for which the Centre announces a Minimum Support Price. It is grown mainly in the kharif season in tribal areas of Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra, where many tribal households use its oil for cooking.

  28. Consider the investments in the following assets: 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only three

    Brand recognition, intellectual property and a mailing list of clients have no physical form, so they are intangible assets. Inventory consists of physical goods held for sale or production, so it is a tangible asset.

  29. Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

    1. Only two
    2. Only three
    3. Only four
    4. All five
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only three

    The Fifteenth Finance Commission shared taxes among States using income distance, population (2011), area, forest and ecology, demographic performance, and tax and fiscal efforts. Governance reforms and stable government were not criteria, so three of the listed items were used.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms

  30. Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only three

    The UNOPS S3i initiative was set up to invest in affordable housing, renewable energy and health infrastructure in developing countries. Mass rapid transport is not one of its focus areas, so the answer is three.

  31. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?

    1. The principle of natural justice
    2. The procedure established by law
    3. Fair application of law
    4. Equality before law
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) The principle of natural justice

    Due process of law, taken from the US Constitution, means a law must be fair, just and reasonable, not merely validly enacted, which in essence is the principle of natural justice. 'Procedure established by law' is the narrower phrase used in Article 21, which only checks that a valid law and its procedure were followed.

  32. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

    Prisons are a State List subject, and each State runs its prisons under its own jail manual and rules. This arrangement goes back to the colonial Prisons Act, 1894, which placed prisons under the Provincial Governments, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?

    1. It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
    2. It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
    3. It defines and limits the powers of government.
    4. It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

    The core idea of constitutionalism is limited government: a constitution sets out the powers of each organ of the State and places limits on them to protect citizens' rights. The other options describe some functions of a constitution but not its chief purpose.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features

  34. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

    1. 1st Amendment
    2. 42nd Amendment
    3. 44th Amendment
    4. 86th Amendment
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    UPSC dropped this question from evaluation.UPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    UPSC dropped this question from the final key, so no option is marked correct. For reference, the 1st Amendment (1951) was passed after court rulings such as Champakam Dorairajan and Romesh Thappar, adding Article 15(4), the Ninth Schedule and wider restrictions in Article 19(2), while the 42nd Amendment (1976) also tried to curb judicial review and give Directive Principles primacy over Fundamental Rights.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments

  35. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body, having been given that status under Article 338B by the 102nd Amendment (2018). The NHRC was created by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 and the NCDRC by consumer protection law, while the Law Commission is set up by executive order.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies

  36. Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    None is correct. Article 71 says acts done by a President before the election is declared void remain valid, and the election cannot be questioned because of vacancies in the electoral college, so dissolved assemblies do not postpone it. Article 111 sets no time limit for the President to give or withhold assent, which is why a 'pocket veto' is possible.

  37. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    A financial bill that is not a Money Bill is treated like an ordinary bill in the Rajya Sabha, which can amend or reject it, while for a Money Bill the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: there is no joint sitting for a Money Bill, but for other bills a joint sitting under Article 108 is only an option the President may use, not something that becomes necessary.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  38. Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Community Reserves were added to the Wildlife (Protection) Act by the 2002 amendment. They are managed by a Community Reserve Management Committee of local people rather than the Chief Wildlife Warden, so statement 1 is wrong, and hunting is prohibited in them. The official key counts two of the four statements as correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India

  39. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Under the Fifth Schedule, Scheduled Areas are declared by an Order of the President, and the units used range from a whole district down to a cluster of villages in a block, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because it is the Governor, not the Chief Minister, who reports annually to the President on the administration of Scheduled Areas.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules

  40. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    In cases such as Indra Sawhney and M. Nagaraj, the Supreme Court read reservations under Article 16(4) together with Article 335, which requires that the claims of SCs and STs be balanced with the maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II is wrong because Article 335 only uses the phrase and does not define it.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  41. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

    1. Andhra
    2. Gandhara
    3. Kalinga
    4. Magadha
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Andhra

    Dhanyakataka (modern Dharanikota near Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh) on the Krishna river was a major centre of the Mahasanghika school. The great Amaravati stupa stood there under the Satavahanas.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism

  42. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    The stupa grew out of the pre-Buddhist practice of raising burial mounds over the remains of important persons, so it is not Buddhist in origin. In Buddhism stupas generally enshrined relics, and many were also built as votive or commemorative monuments, so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism

  43. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

    1. capital cities
    2. ports
    3. centres of iron-and-steel making
    4. shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) ports

    Korkai was the Pandya port famous for pearls, Poompuhar (Kaveripattinam) was the Chola port at the mouth of the Kaveri, and Muchiri (Muziris) was the Chera port on the Kerala coast. All three were busy ports of the Sangam age.

  44. Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?

    1. Kings employing women bodyguards
    2. Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
    3. Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
    4. A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

    Vatakkiruttal (Vattakirutal) in Sangam poetry refers to a defeated or dishonoured king sitting facing north and fasting unto death. The Chera king Perunceral Adan, who did so after being wounded in battle against the Chola Karikala, is a famous example.

  45. Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    None of them arose in the early eighth century. The Hoysalas rose to power around the late tenth and eleventh centuries, the Gahadavalas of Kanauj in the late eleventh century, and the Kakatiyas and the Yadavas of Devagiri became independent kingdoms only in the twelfth century after the decline of the Western Chalukyas.

  46. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: Literary work : Author 1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana 2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri 3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna 4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Hammira-Mahakavya was written by the Jain poet Nayachandra Suri and Nitivakyamrita by the Jain scholar Somadeva Suri, so pairs 2 and 4 are correct. Devichandragupta is a play by Vishakhadatta, not Bilhana, and the Milinda-panha records a dialogue between King Menander and the monk Nagasena and is not by Nagarjuna.

  47. "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

    1. Buddhism
    2. Jainism
    3. Shaivism
    4. Vaishnavism
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Jainism

    Jainism holds that jivas (souls) exist not only in humans, animals and plants but also in earth, water, fire and air bodies. This belief is the basis of the extreme Jain stress on ahimsa towards all forms of life.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism

  48. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

    1. Devaraya I
    2. Mallikarjuna
    3. Vira Vijaya
    4. Virupaksha
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Devaraya I

    Devaraya I (early fifteenth century) built a dam across the Tungabhadra and a long channel to carry water to the capital Vijayanagara. The Italian traveller Nicolo de Conti visited during his reign.

  49. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

    1. Ahmad Shah
    2. Mahmud Begarha
    3. Bahadur Shah
    4. Muhammad Shah
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Bahadur Shah

    Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat, under pressure from the Mughal emperor Humayun, allowed the Portuguese to build a fort at Diu through the Treaty of Bassein in 1534 and a later agreement in 1535. He was killed by the Portuguese at Diu in 1537.

  50. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

    1. The Regulating Act
    2. The Pitt's India Act
    3. The Charter Act of 1793
    4. The Charter Act of 1833
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) The Charter Act of 1833

    The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor General of Bengal the Governor General of India, with all civil and military powers; Lord William Bentinck became the first. The Regulating Act of 1773 had only created the post of Governor General of Bengal.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Governors-General and Viceroys of British India

  51. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Janani Suraksha Yojana is a centrally sponsored safe motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission, not a State scheme. It aims to cut maternal and neonatal deaths by giving cash help to poor pregnant women for institutional delivery, so statements 2 and 3 are correct. Free treatment of sick infants up to one year comes under Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram, not JSY.

  52. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Only three

    Anaemia Mukt Bharat provides prophylactic iron and folic acid supplements, not calcium, so statement 1 is wrong. Its other interventions include promoting delayed cord clamping at birth, periodic deworming of children and adolescents, and tackling non-nutritional causes such as malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis in endemic areas.

  53. Consider the following statements: 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Carbon fibre is light and very strong, so it is widely used in aircraft and car parts. Used carbon fibre composites can be recycled, for example by pyrolysis or chemical processes that recover the fibres, so statement 2 is wrong.

  54. Consider the following actions: 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive 3. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) All three

    An accelerometer measures acceleration and orientation. It senses the sudden deceleration of a crash to fire airbags, the weightless free fall of a laptop to park its hard drive heads, and the direction of gravity to rotate a phone screen, so it is needed in all three.

  55. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements: 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    In a recirculating aquaculture system, the biofilter holds bacteria that treat waste from fish excretion and decaying uneaten feed, and nitrifying bacteria convert toxic ammonia into nitrite and then the far less harmful nitrate. Biofilters do not add phosphorus to the water, so statement 3 is wrong and the answer is two.

  56. Consider the following pairs: Objects in space : Description 1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    Only pair 3 is correct: pulsars are rapidly spinning neutron stars left after massive stars collapse. The descriptions in pairs 1 and 2 are swapped, since Cepheids are variable stars that brighten and dim periodically and nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas.

  57. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

    1. Australia
    2. Canada
    3. Israel
    4. Japan
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Japan

    Japan operates the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS, also called Michibiki), a regional satellite navigation system. Australia, Canada and Israel do not have their own navigation satellite systems.

  58. Consider the following statements: 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Both statements are reversed. Ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial boost phase and then follow a free trajectory, while cruise missiles are jet-propelled throughout their flight. Agni-V is a solid-fuelled long-range ballistic missile, and BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile.

  59. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. 3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Artisanal and small-scale gold mining is the largest human source of mercury emissions, and burning coal in power plants is another major source, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is not accepted because health agencies such as WHO have set tolerable intake and guideline levels for mercury; 'no known safe level' is the phrase WHO uses for lead.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

  60. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) All three

    Green hydrogen, made by electrolysis of water using renewable power, is chemically the same as any hydrogen. It can be burnt directly in internal combustion engines, blended with natural gas for heating or power, and used in fuel cells to run vehicles, so all three are correct.

  61. Consider the following countries: 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5. Lithuania 6. Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

    1. Only two
    2. Only three
    3. Only four
    4. Only five
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only two

    Ukraine's land neighbours are Russia, Belarus, Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania and Moldova. Of the listed countries only Hungary and Romania border it; Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, Latvia and Lithuania do not.

  62. With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
    2. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
    3. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
    4. Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.

    Water vapour, concentrated in the lowest few kilometres of the atmosphere, is a strong absorber of infrared radiation. Infrared is not part of the visible spectrum, it makes up roughly half rather than two-thirds of incoming solar energy, and the equator receives only about two and a half times the annual insolation of the poles, not ten times.

  63. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    Heat and heavy moisture make dead matter in rainforests decompose very quickly, and the released nutrients are rapidly taken up by plants or leached away by rain, so Statement-II is correct. As a result rainforest soils are usually thin and poor in nutrients, so Statement-I is incorrect.

  64. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    Statement-II is correct: water has a much higher specific heat than land, so it heats and cools more slowly. The key treats Statement-I as incorrect, since the contrast between land and sea is generally sharper in winter, when continental interiors become extremely cold while the oceans stay comparatively mild.

  65. Consider the following statements: 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    P waves are the fastest seismic waves, so they reach a seismograph first. They are longitudinal waves in which particles move back and forth along the direction of travel, while S waves are transverse waves in which particles move at right angles to it, so both statements are correct.

  66. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district. 3. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    All three statements are false. Several coastal plants, such as those at Mundra in Gujarat, use seawater for cooling; many plants are located in water-stressed districts; and a large share of thermal capacity is owned by private companies such as Adani Power and Tata Power.

  67. 'Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

    1. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
    2. Converting crop residues into packing material
    3. Producing biodegradable plastics
    4. Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

    Wolbachia is a bacterium that, when introduced into Aedes aegypti mosquitoes, reduces their ability to transmit viruses such as dengue, Zika and chikungunya. The World Mosquito Program releases such mosquitoes to control these diseases.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens

  68. Consider the following activities: 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) All three

    All three are discussed carbon removal methods. Enhanced rock weathering spreads crushed basalt that reacts with CO2, ocean alkalinity enhancement adds lime so seawater absorbs more CO2, and captured industrial CO2 can be dissolved in water and injected underground for storage.

  69. 'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?

    1. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
    2. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
    3. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
    4. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

    Aerial metagenomics means sampling the air of a habitat and sequencing all the environmental DNA it carries. A single air sample can reveal many species of plants, animals and microbes present in the area at once.

  70. 'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?

    1. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
    2. Stimulating 'stem cells' to transform into diverse functional tissues
    3. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
    4. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna

    Microsatellites are short tandem repeats of DNA that vary a lot between individuals and populations. They are widely used as genetic markers in studies of population genetics, kinship and evolutionary relationships among animal species.

  71. Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    Under the MSMED Act, 2006 a medium manufacturing enterprise originally had plant and machinery investment of over 5 crore up to 10 crore rupees, and the 2020 revision raised the limit to 50 crore with a turnover cap, so the 15 to 25 crore range is wrong. The key also treats statement 2 as incorrect, since only MSME loans that meet the RBI's priority sector lending conditions count as priority sector.

  72. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    Central bank digital currencies can be used for direct cross-border payments between central banks without routing through the US dollar or the SWIFT messaging system. Being programmable, a CBDC can also carry conditions, such as a date by which it must be spent or a restriction on what it can buy.

  73. In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to

    1. the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
    2. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
    3. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
    4. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market

    Beta measures how much a stock's price moves relative to the overall market: a beta above 1 means it swings more than the market and below 1 means it swings less. Option (a) describes arbitrage.

  74. Consider the following statements: 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    The SHG movement in India was launched by NABARD through its SHG-Bank Linkage Programme in 1992, not by the State Bank of India, so statement 1 is wrong. SHGs work on joint liability, with the group answerable for loans to members, and they are financed by commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks and cooperative banks.

  75. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

    India's public health system has been criticised for concentrating on curative treatment while preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care get little attention. It is also true that health is a State subject, so States mainly organise health services, but this division of responsibility does not explain the curative bias.

  76. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    The UN World Water Development Report 2022 found that India is the largest user of groundwater, accounting for about a quarter of global withdrawals. Statement-II is wrong because most of this water goes to irrigation, not to drinking water and sanitation.

  77. Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Article 355 makes it the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance, and Article 22(3) says the rights to be informed and to consult a lawyer under Article 22(1) and (2) do not apply to preventive detention. Statement 3 is wrong because POTA, 2002 made a confession recorded before a senior police officer admissible as evidence.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  78. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

    1. Angola
    2. Costa Rica
    3. Ecuador
    4. Somalia
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Somalia

    Somalia has faced decades of civil war and insurgency along with repeated droughts. In 2022 and 2023 its worst drought in decades pushed parts of the country towards famine, drawing global attention.

  79. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    Biodiversity Management Committees, set up by local bodies under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, document local biodiversity and are consulted on access and benefit sharing, which is the core aim of the Nagoya Protocol. The Act also lets them levy collection fees on anyone accessing biological resources for commercial use in their area.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India

  80. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    Only statement 4 is correct. Under Article 54 only elected members form the electoral college, and an MLA's vote value is the State's 1971 population divided by its elected seats (then by 1000), so more seats lower the value. Kerala's MLAs (152) carry more weight than Madhya Pradesh's (131), while Puducherry's (16) exceed Arunachal Pradesh's (8) because Puducherry has more people per seat.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  81. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

    1. archaeological excavations
    2. establishment of English Press in Colonial India
    3. establishment of Churches in Princely States
    4. construction of railways in Colonial India
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) archaeological excavations

    All of them were colonial-era archaeologists and antiquarians. For example, Walter Elliot and Robert Sewell explored the Amaravati stupa, Alexander Rea excavated sites in the Madras Presidency, Longhurst worked at Hampi and Nagarjunakonda, and James Burgess surveyed the cave temples of western India.

  82. Consider the following pairs: Site : Well known for 1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine 2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine 3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Bhaja near Pune has early Buddhist rock-cut caves, and Sittanavasal in Tamil Nadu is a Jain cave shrine famous for its paintings, so pairs 2 and 3 are correct. Besnagar near Vidisha is known for the Heliodorus pillar raised in honour of Vasudeva (Vishnu), not for a Shaivite cave shrine.

  83. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

    The Swadeshi Movement was formally launched on 7 August 1905 at a meeting in the Calcutta Town Hall, urging the use of Indian-made goods. To commemorate it, the Government declared 7 August as National Handloom Day in 2015, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  84. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    The Flag Code requires the flag to be rectangular with a length to height ratio of 3:2, so Statement-II is correct. The Code lists nine standard sizes, such as 900 x 600 mm and 450 x 300 mm, and 600 x 400 mm is not one of them, so Statement-I is incorrect.

  85. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    Since 2015, 26 November has been observed as Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) to promote constitutional values, so Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong: 26 November 1949 is the day the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution, while the Drafting Committee under Dr. Ambedkar was set up on 29 August 1947.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features

  86. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    Switzerland hosts some of the world's biggest gold refineries and is among the top gold exporters by value, so Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong because the United States has the largest official gold reserves, followed by Germany, and Switzerland ranks well below second.

  87. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the 'Trade and Technology Council'. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    The EU-US Trade and Technology Council was launched in 2021 to coordinate approaches to trade, technology standards, supply chains and emerging technologies, so Statement-I is correct. The two sides describe it as a forum for cooperation based on shared democratic values, not as a way to bring technological progress and productivity under their control, so Statement-II is incorrect.

  88. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    India's share of world merchandise exports is under 2 percent (about 1.8 percent in 2022, per WTO data), so Statement-I is wrong. Statement-II is correct, as many Indian firms and foreign companies such as smartphone makers have joined the Production-linked Incentive schemes.

  89. Consider the following statements: The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities 3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    The Stability and Growth Pact is a set of EU fiscal rules that caps government budget deficits at 3 percent of GDP and public debt at 60 percent of GDP. It has nothing to do with sharing infrastructure or technology, so only statement 1 is correct.

  90. Consider the following statements: 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'. 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    None is correct. The GCM was endorsed by the UN General Assembly in December 2018 by a recorded vote, with countries such as the United States and Hungary voting against, so not all members adopted it. It is a non-binding framework and deals only with international migration, not internal migration or internally displaced persons.

  91. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Acts and Rules of the respective States and Union Territories, not a Central Act, so statement 1 is wrong. They serve as an auxiliary to the police in maintaining internal security, and Border Wing Home Guards battalions have been raised in border States to help the Border Security Force check infiltration.

  92. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Action : The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    The Official Secrets Act, 1923 penalises unauthorised use of official uniforms, and the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 made celebratory gunfire that endangers others an offence, so pairs 1 and 3 are correct. Interfering with police or military officers on duty near prohibited places is also an offence under the Official Secrets Act, not the Indian Evidence Act, which only deals with rules of evidence.

  93. Consider the following pairs: Regions often mentioned in news : Reason for being in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan 2. Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    None of the pairs is correct. North Kivu and Ituri are provinces of the Democratic Republic of the Congo hit by armed group violence, Nagorno-Karabakh was the region at the centre of the Armenia-Azerbaijan war, and Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are Ukrainian regions in the Russia-Ukraine war.

  94. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II: The 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    Israel has diplomatic relations with Egypt, Jordan and, since the 2020 Abraham Accords, the UAE, Bahrain and Morocco, so Statement-I is correct. The Arab Peace Initiative was a Saudi proposal endorsed by the Arab League at its Beirut summit in 2002; Israel never signed it, so Statement-II is incorrect.

  95. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards: 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years 2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson 3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Pairs 1 and 3 are correct: the Khel Ratna rewards the most outstanding performance over the previous four years, and the Dronacharya Award honours eminent coaches. The Arjuna Award is for consistently good performance over four years (lifetime achievement is honoured by the Dhyan Chand Award), and the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar goes to organisations and corporates that promote sport, not retired sportspersons.

  96. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. 2. The official mascot was named 'Thambi'. 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. 4. The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    The 44th Chess Olympiad at Mamallapuram near Chennai in 2022 was the first held in India, and its mascot was a knight named 'Thambi', so statements 1 and 2 are correct. The trophies are swapped: the Hamilton-Russell Cup goes to the open section winner and the Vera Menchik Cup to the women's section winner.

  97. Consider the following pairs: Area of conflict mentioned in news : Country where it is located 1. Donbas : Syria 2. Kachin : Ethiopia 3. Tigray : North Yemen How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    None of the pairs is correct. Donbas is in eastern Ukraine, Kachin is a conflict-hit state in northern Myanmar, and Tigray is a region of northern Ethiopia.

  98. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

    1. Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
    2. Establishment of Chinese military bases
    3. Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
    4. Successful coups
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Successful coups

    All four countries saw military takeovers in recent years: Mali in 2020 and 2021, Chad and Guinea in 2021, and Sudan in 2021. These were part of a wave of coups across the Sahel and West Africa.

  99. Consider the following heavy industries: 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) All three

    Fertilizer plants use hydrogen to make ammonia, refineries use it for hydro-processing, and steel plants can use it in place of coal to reduce iron ore. In all three, replacing fossil-derived hydrogen or coal with green hydrogen cuts carbon emissions, which is why India's National Green Hydrogen Mission targets them.

  100. Consider the following statements about G-20: 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    The G20 began in 1999, after the Asian financial crisis, as a forum of finance ministers and central bank governors and was raised to leaders' level in 2008. During its 2023 presidency India made digital public infrastructure one of its key priorities, so both statements are correct.

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