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UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2024, General Studies Paper I

Series A. Questions and answers from the official UPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक UPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real UPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

  1. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    The atmosphere is largely transparent to incoming short-wave solar radiation and is heated mainly from below by long-wave terrestrial radiation, so Statement-I is incorrect. Statement-II is correct: carbon dioxide, water vapour and other greenhouse gases absorb long-wave radiation emitted by the Earth, which is exactly why terrestrial radiation heats the air more.

  2. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

    The troposphere is about 18 km thick over the equator and only about 8 km over the poles. The reason is the strong heating at low latitudes, which drives powerful convection currents that carry heat high up, so Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I.

  3. Consider the following: 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) All four

    Volcanic eruptions throw out solid material (pyroclastic debris, ash and dust) as well as gases. Besides water vapour and carbon dioxide, the gases include nitrogen compounds and sulphur compounds such as sulphur dioxide, so all four items are volcanic products.

  4. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    In the northern winter the oceans are warmer than the land, so January isotherms bend poleward (north) over the oceans and equatorward (south) over the continents. Statement 2 is wrong because the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents that make the North Atlantic warmer, not colder.

  5. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

    1. Algeria and Morocco
    2. Botswana and Namibia
    3. Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana
    4. Madagascar and Mozambique
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana

    Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana in West Africa together grow well over half of the world's cocoa, with Côte d'Ivoire the largest producer. The other pairs are not major cocoa growers; North Africa and southern Africa lack the hot, humid equatorial climate cocoa needs.

  6. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

    1. Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
    2. Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
    3. Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
    4. Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi

    Below Prayagraj the Gomati joins the Ganga near Ghazipur, the Ghaghara near Chhapra, the Gandak near Patna (Hajipur) and the Kosi near Kursela in Bihar. The trap is to put the larger Ghaghara first or to swap the Gandak and the Kosi; the Kosi is the easternmost of the four.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources

  7. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
    3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
    4. Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

    Rain water dissolves carbon dioxide to form weak carbonic acid, which dissolves rocks such as limestone (carbonation). It also carries dissolved oxygen, which oxidises iron-bearing minerals (oxidation). Both are forms of chemical weathering, so both statements are correct and both explain Statement-I.

  8. Consider the following countries: 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    The North Sea is bordered by the United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium and France. Finland and Russia lie on the Baltic Sea and the Arctic, not the North Sea, so only Germany and Norway qualify.

  9. Consider the following information: Waterfall : Region : River 1. Dhuandhar : Malwa : Narmada 2. Hundru : Chota Nagpur : Subarnarekha 3. Gersoppa : Western Ghats : Netravati In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    Only row 2 is correct: Hundru Falls is on the Subarnarekha on the Chota Nagpur plateau near Ranchi. Dhuandhar is on the Narmada near Jabalpur, which is not in the Malwa region, and Gersoppa (Jog) Falls is on the Sharavati, not the Netravati.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources

  10. Consider the following information: Region : Name of the mountain range : Type of mountain 1. Central Asia : Vosges : Fold mountain 2. Europe : Alps : Block mountain 3. North America : Appalachians : Fold mountain 4. South America : Andes : Fold mountain In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    The Appalachians and the Andes are fold mountains, so rows 3 and 4 are correct. The Vosges are in Europe (France), not Central Asia, and are a classic block mountain, while the Alps are young fold mountains, so rows 1 and 2 are wrong.

  11. Consider the following airports: 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only

    Donyi Polo Airport at Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh) and Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh) were built on new sites as greenfield airports. Vijayawada airport at Gannavaram is an existing airport that was upgraded and expanded, so it is not a greenfield project.

  12. With reference to "water vapour", which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Water vapour is a variable gas concentrated in the lower atmosphere, and its amount falls with height. It is highest in warm, humid tropical air and lowest in cold polar and desert air, so statement 2 is wrong.

  13. Consider the following description: 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm. What is this type of climate?

    1. Equatorial climate
    2. China type climate
    3. Humid subtropical climate
    4. Marine West coast climate
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Marine West coast climate

    The marine west coast climate (as in north-western Europe) has mild winters and cool summers because of onshore westerlies, giving a small temperature range and rain in every month, usually between about 50 and 250 cm. Equatorial climate has a low range too but much heavier rainfall, while China type and humid subtropical climates have larger seasonal temperature ranges.

  14. With reference to "Coriolis force", which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    The Coriolis force is proportional to the wind speed and to the sine of the latitude. It therefore grows as wind velocity rises, is greatest at the poles and is zero at the equator, so both statements are correct.

  15. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours? 1. Equator 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. Tropic of Capricorn 4. Arctic Circle Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 2 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 2 and 4

    June 21 is the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, so all northern latitudes have days longer than 12 hours, and the Arctic Circle has 24 hours of daylight. The equator has about 12 hours throughout the year, and the Tropic of Capricorn, in the Southern Hemisphere, has its shortest day.

  16. One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

    1. Amazon Basin
    2. Congo Basin
    3. Kikori Basin
    4. Rio de la Plata Basin
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Congo Basin

    The Cuvette Centrale peatland in the Congo Basin, spread across the Republic of the Congo and the Democratic Republic of the Congo, is the largest tropical peatland complex in the world. It stores carbon roughly equal to about three years of global fossil-fuel emissions, so draining or degrading it could release large amounts of carbon.

  17. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements: 1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    PFAS, used in non-stick, stain-resistant and grease-proof products, are called forever chemicals because their strong carbon-fluorine bonds resist breakdown. They have been detected widely in drinking water, food and packaging, and they build up in the blood and organs of animals and humans over time, so all three statements are correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

  18. Consider the following: 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

    1. Only two
    2. Only three
    3. Only four
    4. All five
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only three

    A parasitoid is an insect whose larva develops in or on a single host and eventually kills it. Parasitoid species occur among wasps (the largest group), flies such as tachinids, and some beetles including certain carabid beetles. Centipedes are free-living predators and termites are social decomposers, so neither group has parasitoids.

  19. Consider the following plants: 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) All three

    Groundnut, horse-gram and soybean are all legumes of the family Fabaceae (Leguminosae), the pea family. Like peas, they bear pods and host nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules, so all three belong to the family.

  20. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    UPSC dropped this question from evaluation.UPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    UPSC dropped this question in its official answer key, so it was not scored. For context, the Indian Flying Fox is a fruit bat that feeds on fruit and nectar, not blood, and its listing under the Act changed with the 2022 amendment.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Environment Laws of India

  21. The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are:

    1. Birds
    2. Fish
    3. Insects
    4. Reptiles
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Insects

    Cicadas and froghoppers are sap-sucking true bugs (order Hemiptera), and the pond skater is a water strider that walks on the surface film of ponds. All three are insects, despite names that might suggest frogs or other animals.

  22. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

    Most modern chewing gums use a synthetic gum base made of polymers such as polyvinyl acetate and polyisobutylene, which are plastics. Because this base does not biodegrade, discarded gum persists on streets and in the environment, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

  23. Consider the following pairs: Country : Animal found in its natural habitat 1. Brazil : Indri 2. Indonesia : Elk 3. Madagascar : Bonobo How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    None of the pairs is correct. The indri is a lemur found only in Madagascar, not Brazil; elk are native to the cold forests of North America and northern Eurasia, not Indonesia; and the bonobo is an ape found only in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, not Madagascar.

  24. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization: 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 2 only

    The World Toilet Organization is a global non-profit founded in Singapore in 2001, not a UN agency. It started the World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day (later adopted by the UN) and the World Toilet College. Its work is advocacy, training and awareness rather than giving grants to countries, so only statement 2 is correct.

  25. Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 and 2 only

    Lions can breed at any time of the year, and cheetahs cannot roar; they purr, chirp and growl instead. Statement 3 is wrong because male leopards, like lions, mark their territories with urine spraying and scratch marks.

  26. Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers"?

    1. It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
    2. It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
    3. It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
    4. It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

    100 Million Farmers is a World Economic Forum initiative that brings together companies, governments and farmer groups to move food and water systems towards net-zero emissions and nature-positive outcomes while building farmer resilience. It is not an organic livestock network, a blockchain fertiliser exchange or an FPO-formation programme.

  27. Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources"?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) All four

    Distributed Energy Resources are small, decentralised generation or storage units located close to where electricity is used, often behind the meter or on the local distribution grid. Battery storage, small biomass generators, fuel cells and rooftop solar panels all fit this description, so all four count.

  28. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

    1. Fig
    2. Mahua
    3. Sandalwood
    4. Silk cotton
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Fig

    Fig trees have an obligate mutualism with tiny fig wasps: the flowers are hidden inside the fig, and only the matching fig wasp species can enter to pollinate them while laying its eggs. Mahua, sandalwood and silk cotton are pollinated by a range of animals such as bats, birds and various insects.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  29. Consider the following: 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) All three

    All three groups include poisonous species. Monarch and some other butterflies store plant toxins that make them poisonous to predators, pufferfish contain tetrodotoxin, and poison dart frogs secrete powerful toxins through their skin.

  30. Consider the following: 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Only one

    Cashew was brought to India from Brazil by the Portuguese, and papaya is native to tropical America (Central America and Mexico). Red sanders is endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh, so only one of the three is native to India.

  31. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. 2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only

    An RTG is not a reactor: it has no chain reaction and simply converts the heat from natural radioactive decay into electricity with thermocouples. RTGs power deep-space probes such as Voyager and Mars rovers, and their usual fuel, plutonium-238, has historically been produced as a by-product of nuclear weapons programmes, so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  32. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    Massive giant stars burn their nuclear fuel at a far higher rate than small dwarf stars, so Statement-II is correct. Because of that rapid burning they exhaust their fuel quickly and live only millions of years, while dwarf stars can shine for billions of years, so Statement-I is incorrect.

  33. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

    1. Nitric oxide
    2. Nitrous oxide
    3. Nitrogen dioxide
    4. Nitrogen pentoxide
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Nitric oxide

    Nitric oxide (NO) is produced by the cells lining blood vessels; it relaxes the smooth muscle of the vessel wall, widening the vessels and increasing blood flow. Nitrous oxide is laughing gas used as an anaesthetic, and nitrogen dioxide and nitrogen pentoxide are pollutants or industrial chemicals, not body messengers.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Human Body: Key Facts

  34. Consider the following activities: 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3. Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    The official key gives only two. Weather radars routinely monitor precipitation, and radars are also used to track the movement of migrating birds, bats and insects. Detecting narcotics carried by passengers relies on other tools such as X-ray scanners, trace detectors and sniffer dogs.

  35. Consider the following aircraft: 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) None

    Fifth generation fighters combine full stealth, supercruise and sensor fusion, as in the F-22, F-35 and J-20. The Rafale is usually described as a 4.5 generation fighter, the MiG-29 is a fourth generation aircraft and the Tejas Mk-1 is a 4 or 4.5 generation light combat aircraft, so none of them is fifth generation.

  36. In which of the following are hydrogels used? 1. Controlled drug delivery in patients 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems 3. Preparation of industrial lubricants Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Hydrogels are water-swollen polymer networks that are soft and biocompatible, which makes them well suited to wound dressings, contact lenses and controlled release of drugs inside the body. The official key accepts only drug delivery among the listed uses; air-conditioning systems and industrial lubricants are not standard hydrogel applications.

  37. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

    1. Hydrogen peroxide
    2. Hydronium
    3. Oxygen
    4. Water vapour
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Water vapour

    In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen combines with oxygen from the air to produce electricity, heat and water. The only tailpipe emission is therefore water vapour; oxygen is consumed rather than released, and hydrogen peroxide or hydronium are not exhaust products.

  38. Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

    1. Irrigation of terraced crop fields
    2. Lift irrigation of cereal crops
    3. Long duration energy storage
    4. Rainwater harvesting system
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Long duration energy storage

    Pumped-storage hydropower pumps water to an upper reservoir when power is cheap or surplus and releases it through turbines when demand is high. It works like a giant rechargeable battery and is the leading form of long duration energy storage for grids with a lot of solar and wind power; it is not an irrigation or rainwater harvesting technique.

  39. "Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of:

    1. Assisted reproductive technologies
    2. Drug delivery nanotechnologies
    3. Vaccine production technologies
    4. Wastewater treatment technologies
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies

    A membrane bioreactor combines biological treatment by microbes with membrane filtration (micro or ultrafiltration) to treat sewage and industrial effluent. It produces high quality treated water suitable for reuse, which is why the term appears in wastewater treatment discussions rather than in medicine or vaccine production.

  40. With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of:

    1. Bond market
    2. Forex market
    3. Money market
    4. Stock market
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Money market

    Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) was a short-term money market instrument run by the Clearing Corporation of India that let institutions borrow and lend funds for up to a year against collateral such as government securities. It has since been replaced by tri-party repo, which is also a money market tool.

  41. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

    1. the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
    2. the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
    3. the birth rate minus death rate.
    4. the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

    Total fertility rate is the average number of children a woman would bear over her reproductive years if she experienced the current age-specific fertility rates. Option (a) describes the crude birth rate and option (c) describes the natural growth rate, which are different measures.

  42. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs). 3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 2 and 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 2 and 3

    The official key marks all three statements as correct. Foreign portfolio (institutional) investors are allowed to invest in Indian government securities within set limits and routes, and Indian stock exchanges run separate debt segments for trading bonds.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools

  43. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Insurance companies and pension funds are major institutional buyers of government securities and corporate bonds. Retail investors can also trade both, for example through stock exchange debt segments, bond platforms and the RBI Retail Direct scheme for G-Secs, so all three are correct.

  44. Consider the following: 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1 and 3 only

    A financial instrument is a tradable contract that creates a financial asset for one party and a liability or equity for another. ETF units and currency swaps (a derivative contract) qualify, but a motor vehicle is a physical asset, not a financial instrument.

  45. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Economic activity : Sector 1. Storage of agricultural produce : Secondary 2. Dairy farm : Primary 3. Mineral exploration : Tertiary 4. Weaving cloth : Secondary How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Dairy farming is a primary activity and weaving cloth is manufacturing, a secondary activity, so pairs 2 and 4 are correct. Storage of produce is a service (tertiary), and mineral exploration and extraction belong to the primary sector, so pairs 1 and 3 are wrong.

  46. Consider the following materials: 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 3 and 4 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Sustainable Aviation Fuel can be made from many biomass and waste streams. Crop residues and wood mill waste can be converted through gasification or other routes, corn grain can be turned into ethanol and then into jet fuel, and wet wastes such as sewage sludge can be processed too, so all four are possible feedstocks.

  47. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Items : Category 1. Farmer's plough : Working capital 2. Computer : Fixed capital 3. Yarn used by the weaver : Fixed capital 4. Petrol : Working capital How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Fixed capital is used over many production cycles, while working capital is used up in a single cycle. A computer is fixed capital and petrol is working capital, so pairs 2 and 4 are right; a farmer's plough is fixed capital and the yarn a weaver uses up is working capital, so pairs 1 and 3 are reversed.

  48. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items"?

    1. Big data analytics
    2. Cryptography
    3. Metaverse
    4. Virtual matrix
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Metaverse

    The metaverse is commonly defined as a persistent, interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that very large numbers of users can enter at the same time, with ownership of virtual items often recorded on blockchains. Big data analytics and cryptography are supporting technologies, and virtual matrix is not a standard term for this idea.

  49. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements: 1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. 2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Under the RBI framework for wholly owned subsidiaries of foreign banks, a minimum paid-up capital (initially 500 crore rupees) is prescribed, so statement 1 is wrong. The official key treats statement 2, as worded, as incorrect too; the RBI board composition rules are framed in terms of resident Indian nationals and independent directors.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India

  50. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements: 1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    The Companies (CSR Policy) Rules exclude activities that benefit only the company's employees or that are undertaken in the normal course of business from counting as CSR. Statement 2 is wrong because Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires qualifying companies to spend at least 2% of their average net profits of the preceding three years on CSR.

  51. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

    US Treasury securities are backed by the full faith and credit of the US government, meaning its promise and power to tax, not by any pledged physical collateral. The official key accepts that in a default, bondholders would have no hard assets to claim against, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  52. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    UPSC dropped this question from evaluation.UPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    UPSC dropped this question in its official answer key, so it was not scored. For context, a syndicated loan is one large loan provided jointly by a group of lenders to a single borrower.

  53. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee: 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 4

    The digital rupee (e-rupee) is the RBI's central bank digital currency: legal tender issued by the RBI in line with monetary policy, shown as a liability on its balance sheet like banknotes, and exchangeable one-to-one with cash and bank deposits. It carries no built-in protection against inflation, since its value moves with the rupee itself.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Monetary Policy and RBI Tools

  54. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets? 1. Nayaputta 2. Shakyamuni 3. Tathagata Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only

    Buddha was called Shakyamuni, the sage of the Shakya clan, and Tathagata, the one who has thus gone, a title he used for himself. Nayaputta (Nataputta) was an epithet of Mahavira, the 24th Jain Tirthankara, which is the trap in this question.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism

  55. Consider the following information: Archaeological Site : State : Description 1. Chandraketugarh : Odisha : Trading Port town 2. Inamgaon : Maharashtra : Chalcolithic site 3. Mangadu : Kerala : Megalithic site 4. Salihundam : Andhra Pradesh : Rock-cut cave shrines In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3

    Inamgaon near Pune is a well-known Chalcolithic (Jorwe culture) settlement, and Mangadu near Kollam in Kerala is a megalithic burial site, so rows 2 and 3 are correct. Chandraketugarh, an ancient port town, is in West Bengal, not Odisha, and Salihundam in Andhra Pradesh is known for Buddhist stupas and monasteries rather than rock-cut cave shrines.

  56. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

    1. Krishnadevaraya
    2. Narasimha Saluva
    3. Muhammad Shah III
    4. Yusuf Adil Shah
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Krishnadevaraya

    Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara kept friendly ties with the Portuguese, who supplied horses and were rivals of his enemy Bijapur, and he allowed them to build a fort at Bhatkal on the Kanara coast. Yusuf Adil Shah of Bijapur was the ruler from whom the Portuguese captured Goa, so he is the trap option.

  57. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements: 1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. 2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    UPSC dropped this question from evaluation.UPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    UPSC dropped this question in its official answer key, so it was not scored. For context, the Permanent Settlement of 1793 under Cornwallis fixed revenue with zamindars, and estates of defaulters could be auctioned under the sunset law.

  58. Consider the following statements: 1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    The Upanishads, the concluding part of the Vedic corpus, were composed roughly in the first millennium BCE, well before the Puranas took shape in the early centuries CE, so statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong because the Upanishads use many stories and parables, such as Nachiketa and Yama in the Katha Upanishad and Satyakama Jabala in the Chandogya Upanishad.

  59. Consider the following statements: 1. India is a member of the International Grains Council. 2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    India is a member of the International Grains Council, the London-based body that administers the Grains Trade Convention and shares market information on grains. Membership is voluntary and is not a condition for trading rice or wheat; many countries export and import grains without being members, so statement 2 is wrong.

  60. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

    1. Chhau dance
    2. Durga puja
    3. Garba dance
    4. Kumbh mela
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Garba dance

    Garba of Gujarat was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2023. Chhau dance was inscribed in 2010, Kumbh Mela in 2017 and Durga Puja in Kolkata in 2021, so Garba was the most recent of the four.

  61. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

    1. C. Rajagopalachari
    2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    3. T.T. Krishnamachari
    4. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

    Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, presided over the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946 as its provisional (temporary) President, following French practice. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946; Dr. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee, not the Assembly.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features

  62. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    The 1935 Act proposed an All India Federation of the British Indian provinces and the princely states that chose to join, though the federation never came into being. Under dyarchy at the Centre, defence and foreign affairs were reserved subjects administered by the Governor-General, not controlled by the federal legislature, so statement 2 is wrong.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features

  63. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

    1. Kavyalankara
    2. Natyashastra
    3. Madhyama-vyayoga
    4. Mahabhashya
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga

    Madhyama-vyayoga, a one-act play based on an episode of the Mahabharata involving Bhima, is one of the plays attributed to Bhasa. Kavyalankara is a work on poetics by Bhamaha, the Natyashastra is attributed to Bharata, and the Mahabhashya is Patanjali's commentary on Panini's grammar.

  64. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

    1. Prajnaparamita Sutra
    2. Visuddhimagga
    3. Sarvastivada Vinaya
    4. Lalitavistara
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya

    Sanghabhuti, a monk from north-western India who reached China in the late fourth century, is credited with a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya, the monastic code of the Sarvastivada school. The Visuddhimagga was written by Buddhaghosa, and the Prajnaparamita and Lalitavistara are Mahayana texts not linked to him.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism

  65. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO: 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Santiniketan in West Bengal and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas in Karnataka were both inscribed at the World Heritage Committee session in September 2023. Rani-ki-Vav at Patan was inscribed in 2014 and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex in 2002.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India

  66. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Article 368(1) says Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in that article. All three modes are expressly named, though the power is limited by the basic structure doctrine.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments

  67. Consider the following countries: 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeria 4. South Korea 5. South Africa Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

    1. 1, 2 and 4
    2. 1, 3 and 5
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 3 and 5 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1, 2 and 4

    Italy, Japan and South Korea have fertility rates far below the replacement level of about 2.1, rapidly ageing societies and shrinking populations, with South Korea having the lowest fertility rate in the world. Nigeria and South Africa have comparatively young and growing populations.

  68. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1, 2 and 3

    Article 109 lays down the special procedure for Money Bills: they can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha can only return them within 14 days with recommendations, not reject them. Statement 4 is wrong because the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject any or all of the Rajya Sabha's recommendations.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  69. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces? Army : Airforce : Navy 1. Brigadier : Air Commodore : Commander 2. Major General : Air Vice Marshal : Vice Admiral 3. Major : Squadron Leader : Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel : Group Captain : Captain Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2, 3 and 4
    4. 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 3 only

    Only row 3 is right: Major, Squadron Leader and Lieutenant Commander are equivalent. A Brigadier and Air Commodore equal a Commodore (not Commander); a Major General and Air Vice Marshal equal a Rear Admiral (not Vice Admiral); and a Group Captain and naval Captain equal a Colonel, not a Lieutenant Colonel.

  70. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    After the 2002 amendment, the NEC consists of the Governors and Chief Ministers of the member states (Sikkim was added) and three members nominated by the President. The Union Home Minister is not a member under the Act; the chair has been held by the Union Minister for Development of North Eastern Region, with the Home Minister later named chairman by government decision.

  71. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. Four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Four

    Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times, under Delimitation Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. The latest, chaired by Justice Kuldip Singh, redrew constituencies on the basis of the 2001 Census while keeping the number of seats frozen.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies

  72. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1, 2 and 4
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1, 2 and 3

    The 71st Amendment of 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule. Maithili was added later by the 92nd Amendment of 2003, together with Bodo, Dogri and Santhali.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules

  73. Consider the following pairs: Party : Its Leader 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh : Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Socialist Party : C. Rajagopalachari 3. Congress for Democracy : Jagjivan Ram 4. Swatantra Party : Acharya Narendra Dev How many of the above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two

    Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in 1951, and Jagjivan Ram formed the Congress for Democracy in 1977, so pairs 1 and 3 are correct. The leaders in pairs 2 and 4 are swapped: C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party, while Acharya Narendra Dev was a leader of the Socialist Party.

  74. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG), added by the 74th Amendment, deals with Municipalities and their powers. Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) contains the emergency provisions, and Part XX consists of Article 368 on amending the Constitution, so all three statements are correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  75. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

    1. Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
    2. Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
    3. Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
    4. Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

    Inter-State migration and inter-State quarantine both appear in the Union List (Entry 81). Inter-State trade and commerce (Entry 42) and corporation tax (Entry 85) are also Union List subjects, so every option other than inter-State quarantine wrongly places a Union subject in the State List.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules

  76. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

    1. Article 15
    2. Article 16
    3. Article 19
    4. Article 21
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Article 21

    In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench held that privacy is a fundamental right protected mainly as part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. The court also noted that it draws support from the freedoms in Part III, but Article 21 is its core home.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  77. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1 and 3 only

    The CDS is the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and the principal military adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters, while heading the Department of Military Affairs. The CDS does not exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs, who continue to command their own services.

  78. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

    1. Operation Sankalp
    2. Operation Maitri
    3. Operation Sadbhavana
    4. Operation Madad
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Operation Sadbhavana

    Operation Sadbhavana is the Indian Army's civic action programme in Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and the North East, running schools, health care and infrastructure projects for local people. Operation Sankalp was a naval maritime security deployment, Operation Maitri was the Nepal earthquake relief mission, and Operation Madad has been used for flood relief.

  79. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

    1. Canada and the United States of America
    2. Chile and Argentina
    3. China and India
    4. Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Canada and the United States of America

    The Canada and United States boundary, including the Alaska section, runs for about 8,890 km and is the longest international border between two countries. The Kazakhstan and Russia border (about 7,600 km) is the longest continuous land border, which makes option (d) the main trap.

  80. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 1 and 3 only

    The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee was first set up as an ad hoc committee in 2000 and became a permanent part of the Rules in 2015. Any person, not only a member, can complain about a member's unethical conduct through a Lok Sabha member, and the committee does not take up matters that are sub judice, so statements 1 and 3 are correct.

  81. Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam': 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2 and 3 only

    The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 reserves one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies for women, including one-third of the seats already reserved for SCs and STs, for a period of 15 years. It takes effect only after a fresh delimitation based on the first census after the Act, so it did not apply from the 18th Lok Sabha.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments

  82. Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1, 2 and 4
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 2, 3 and 4

    Mitra Shakti is the India and Sri Lanka joint military exercise, not an India and Bangladesh one, so statement 1 is wrong. Its 2023 edition began at Aundh in Pune, focused on joint counter-terrorism operations under a UN mandate, and included Indian Air Force participation alongside the Army.

  83. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

    1. a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
    2. the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
    3. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
    4. the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

    Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to stop it from continuing proceedings beyond its jurisdiction. It is available only against judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, not against administrative officers, legislatures or the government, which is the trap in the other options.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Fundamental Rights Remedies: The Five Writs

  84. Consider the following statements: 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    Under Article 342, the President specifies Scheduled Tribes for each State by public notification after consulting the Governor, and only Parliament can later change the list, so statement 1 is wrong. Because the notification is State-specific, a community listed as a Scheduled Tribe in one State need not be listed in another.

  85. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements: 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    Article 112 requires the President to cause the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before both Houses; the Finance Minister presents it on the President's behalf, not the Prime Minister's, so statement 1 is wrong. Article 113(3) states that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President, so statement 2 is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms

  86. Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters"?

    1. Bhupender Yadav
    2. Nalin Mehta
    3. Shashi Tharoor
    4. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

    External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar wrote The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World (2020) and Why Bharat Matters (2024), both on India's foreign policy. Shashi Tharoor and Nalin Mehta are also authors, but of different books.

  87. Consider the following pairs: Country : Reason for being in the news 1. Argentina : Worst economic crisis 2. Sudan : War between the country's regular army and paramilitary forces 3. Turkey : Rescinded its membership of NATO How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. All three pairs
    4. None of the pairs
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) Only two pairs

    Argentina was in the news for a severe economic crisis with very high inflation, and Sudan for the war that broke out in April 2023 between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces. Turkey remains a NATO member; it was in the news over approving Finland's and Sweden's accession, not leaving the alliance.

  88. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe. Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

    The SUMED (Suez-Mediterranean) pipeline in Egypt runs from Ain Sukhna on the Gulf of Suez (Red Sea) to Sidi Kerir near Alexandria on the Mediterranean. Because it links the two seas, it offers an alternative to the Suez Canal for carrying Persian Gulf hydrocarbons to Europe, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  89. Consider the following statements: 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Both 1 and 2

    The Red Sea lies in a hot desert belt between north-east Africa and Arabia, so it gets very little rain and loses a great deal of water to evaporation. No permanent river drains into it, which, together with high evaporation, makes it one of the saltiest seas in the world.

  90. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

    1. Locomotives using fossil fuels
    2. Ships using fossil fuels
    3. Extraction of metals from ores
    4. Power plants using fossil fuels
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels

    The US EPA states that the largest source of sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities. Metal smelting, ships and locomotives also emit SO2, but in smaller amounts.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

  91. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d'état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

    Since 2020 there have been military coups in Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger and neighbouring Chad and Guinea, and the new juntas pushed out Western and UN forces. This political upheaval has weakened counter-insurgency efforts and worsened the security situation in the Sahel, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

  92. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    India does import apples from the USA; in 2023 it removed the retaliatory extra duty it had imposed on US apples, so Statement-I is incorrect. Statement-II is correct: under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and related rules, genetically modified food cannot be imported or sold without approval from the competent authority.

  93. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (a) 1 only

    Under Article 96, the Speaker cannot preside while a resolution for his or her removal is under consideration. However, the Speaker has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings and may vote in the first instance on the resolution (though not in case of a tie), so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  94. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 1 and 2

    On dissolution of the Lok Sabha, bills pending in it lapse, and so do bills passed by it that are pending in the Rajya Sabha. A bill does not lapse if the President has already notified the intention to hold a joint sitting before the dissolution, so statement 3 is wrong.

  95. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) 2 and 3

    Prorogation under Article 85 is an executive act done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so statement 1 is wrong. It usually follows an adjournment sine die, though the President may prorogue a House in session, and dissolution of the Lok Sabha is also ordinarily done on ministerial advice except in exceptional situations.

  96. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

    The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act in April 2024 to scale up EU manufacturing of clean technologies such as solar panels, batteries and heat pumps. Statement-II is wrong: the EU's legally binding climate neutrality target is 2050, and the Act aims for about 40% of its clean-tech needs to be made in the EU by 2030, not all of it.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements

  97. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Statement-II: Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    Venezuela has the largest proven crude oil reserves in the world, so Statement-II is correct. Statement-I is incorrect: the country has not made a rapid recovery, and more than seven million Venezuelans have left in one of the largest displacement crises in the world.

  98. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements: 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    DILRMP has been a Central Sector scheme with 100% central funding since 2016. It covers computerisation of land records and digitisation of cadastral maps, and it includes an initiative to transliterate Records of Rights from the local language into any of the Eighth Schedule languages, so all three statements are correct.

  99. With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements: 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 only

    PMSMA provides free, assured antenatal check-ups to pregnant women in their second and third trimesters on the 9th of every month at government health facilities, and it invites private obstetricians and other specialists to volunteer their services there. It does not guarantee six months of post-delivery care, so only statement 2 is correct.

  100. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1, 3 and 4
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 4
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (b) 2 and 3 only

    PM-SYM is a voluntary contributory pension scheme for unorganised workers in which the worker pays an age-specific monthly contribution, matched equally by the Centre, and receives an assured pension of 3,000 rupees a month from age 60. The entry age is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40, and family pension (50%) goes only to the spouse, not to unmarried daughters.

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