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MPSC State Services Preliminary Examination 2020, Paper 1

Series A. Questions and answers from the official MPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक MPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real MPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

  1. Match the following : (a) The Peshwas : (i) Built Library of English books and Laboratory for scientific experiments. (b) Maharaja Sawai Jaysingh : (ii) Had European doctors and scholars in the court. (c) Raghunath Navalkar : (iii) Asked the Portuguese king to send Portuguese astronomers. (d) Raja Sarfoji of Tanjore : (iv) Learnt English and wrote well in the language.

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
    3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

    The Peshwas kept European doctors and scholars at their court, Sawai Jai Singh of Jaipur, the astronomer king, asked the Portuguese king to send astronomers, Raghunath Navalkar set up a library of English books and a laboratory, and Raja Serfoji II of Tanjore learnt English and wrote it well. This matches option (2).

  2. Who from the following Sultans were from the Sayyad dynasty ? (a) Khijrakhan (b) Mubarakshah (c) Muhamadshah (d) Allauddin Alamshah

    1. (a), (b) and (c) only
    2. (b) and (c) only
    3. (b), (c) and (d) only
    4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

    The Sayyid dynasty of Delhi (1414 to 1451) had four rulers: Khizr Khan, Mubarak Shah, Muhammad Shah and Alauddin Alam Shah, after whom Bahlul Lodi took over. So all four are correct, option (4).

  3. Match the following : (a) Mayurbhanj : (i) Central Administration (b) Kolhapur : (ii) Merged into Bombay Province (c) Rampur : (iii) Merged into Orissa (d) Bhopal : (iv) Merged into Uttar Pradesh

    1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

    After independence Mayurbhanj merged into Orissa, Kolhapur into Bombay Province and Rampur into Uttar Pradesh, while Bhopal was kept as a centrally administered (Chief Commissioner's) state. That is option (1).

  4. Which of the pair from the following is wrong ?

    1. Dastas - Bankroka Tapu
    2. Siaram Dal - Bihar
    3. Parshuram Dal - Orissa
    4. Hindustan Socialist Republican Army - Uttar Pradesh
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Parshuram Dal - Orissa

    The Siyaram Dal and the Parshuram Dal were underground revolutionary groups active in Bihar during the Quit India movement, so linking the Parshuram Dal with Orissa is the wrong pair. The official MPSC key gives option (3).

  5. Who from the following women inspired the womanhood to fight the non-violent war of independence ? (a) Kamladevi (b) Hansa Mehta (c) Ratanben Mehta (d) Ramibai Kamdar (e) Laxmibai Garde

    1. (a), (c) and (e) only
    2. (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
    3. (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
    4. (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only

    Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, Hansa Mehta, Ratanben Mehta and Ramibai Kamdar are named as women who drew women into the non-violent freedom struggle. The official MPSC key gives option (3), leaving out Laxmibai Garde.

  6. Match the following leaders of the Hyderabad State Congress with their work and places of work. (a) Govindbhai Shroff : (i) Head of Action Committee (b) M. Ramchandra Rao : (ii) Hyderabad-Secunderabad Area (c) Dr. Melkote : (iii) In-charge of struggle in Marathwada (d) Digambarrao Bindu : (iv) Andhra

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
    3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

    In the Hyderabad liberation struggle Govindbhai Shroff led the movement in Marathwada, M. Ramchandra Rao worked in the Andhra (Telangana) region, Dr. Melkote in the Hyderabad-Secunderabad area, and Digambarrao Bindu headed the Action Committee. This is option (4).

  7. Who from the following is described in the following sentences ? (a) He was from the Kale village in Satara district. (b) He had studied upto fourth standard. (c) His 'Jalsa' had tremendous impact on the people of Maharashtra. (d) He used to make the 'Bahujan Samaj' aware of their pitiable condition and lack of education in them.

    1. Keshavrao Vichare
    2. Ramchandra Ghadge
    3. Bhaurao Patil
    4. Krishnarao Bhalekar
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Ramchandra Ghadge

    Ramchandra Ghadge of Kale village in Satara was a Satyashodhak worker whose jalsas (folk performances) spread awareness among the Bahujan Samaj about their condition and need for education. The official MPSC key gives option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra

  8. Match the following : (a) Parikshit : (i) is the hero of a famous song of praise found in Atharvaveda (b) Janamejaya : (ii) is credited with having gone round the earth (c) Pravahana-Jaivali : (iii) Famous Philosopher (d) Janaka : (iv) The patron of Yagnavalkya

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
    3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

    A hymn of praise to King Parikshit appears in the Atharvaveda, Janamejaya is credited in later Vedic texts with going round the earth, Pravahana Jaivali was a philosopher king of the Upanishads, and Janaka of Videha patronised Yajnavalkya. That is option (3).

  9. Who gave a speech at the conference of aboriginals at Zari in Umbargaon Taluka on 23rd May, 1945 and asked them to end the practice of Forced Labour ?

    1. Kama Randive
    2. Godavari Parulekar
    3. Shamrao Parulekar
    4. Devji Tandel
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Shamrao Parulekar

    The Kisan Sabha conference of adivasis at Zari in Umbargaon taluka in May 1945 began the campaign against vethbigari (forced labour) that led to the Warli uprising. The official MPSC key credits Shamrao Parulekar with this speech, option (3).

  10. In 1889, who called a meeting of barbers in Bombay and discouraged them from tonsuring women ?

    1. Justice Ranade
    2. Maharshi Dhondo Keshav Karve
    3. Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
    4. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule

    Mahatma Jyotiba Phule opposed the tonsuring of widows, and a meeting of barbers in Bombay in this campaign persuaded them not to shave widows' heads. The official MPSC key gives option (3), Phule.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra

  11. What were the following States ? (a) The Malavas (b) Arjunayanas (c) Yaudheyas (d) Madrakas (e) Abhiras (f) Prarjunas (g) Sanakanikas (h) Kakas (i) Kharaparikas

    1. The States of Aryavarta
    2. The tribal States which surrendered to Samudra Gupta
    3. The States of Deccan
    4. The territories of Naga rulers
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) The tribal States which surrendered to Samudra Gupta

    The Allahabad (Prayag) pillar inscription of Samudragupta lists the Malavas, Arjunayanas, Yaudheyas, Madrakas, Abhiras, Prarjunas, Sanakanikas, Kakas and Kharaparikas as tribal republics that submitted to him and paid tribute. So the answer is option (2).

  12. Match the following : (a) Mukunda Das : (i) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (b) B.G. Tilak : (ii) Swadeshi movement against the use of foreign sugar (c) Lala Lajpat Rai : (iii) Requested the Bombay Mill owners to supply dhotis at moderate rates (d) Chidambaram Pillai : (iv) Composed patriotic songs

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

    During the Swadeshi movement Mukunda Das composed patriotic songs, Tilak urged Bombay mill owners to supply cheap dhotis, Lala Lajpat Rai campaigned against foreign sugar, and V.O. Chidambaram Pillai founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company. That is option (2).

  13. Who from the following persons were the court painters of Shahajahan ? (a) Mir, Hasham (b) Chitramani, Anupchitra (c) Muhammad Hassan (d) Fakir Ulla

    1. (a) and (b) only
    2. (b) and (c) only
    3. (c) and (d) only
    4. (a), (b) and (d) only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b) and (d) only

    Mir Hashim, Chitramani, Anupchitra and Fakir Ullah are named among the painters of Shah Jahan's court, so (a), (b) and (d) are correct. The official MPSC key gives option (4).

  14. Arrange the following things in chronological order. (a) The Pakistan Resolution (b) Rejection of Rajaji's proposal by the Congress (c) The Rajaji Formula (d) Simla Conference

    1. (a), (d), (b), (c)
    2. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    3. (b), (a), (d), (c)
    4. (c), (b), (a), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a), (b), (c), (d)

    The Muslim League passed the Pakistan Resolution at Lahore in 1940, the Congress rejected Rajaji's proposal to concede the League's demand in 1942, the Rajaji Formula was put forward in 1944, and the Simla Conference met in 1945. So the order is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  15. __________ wrote 'Natural History' in 75 A.D. in which there are references to exports from India.

    1. Pliny
    2. Herodotus
    3. Megasthenes
    4. Periplus
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Pliny

    Pliny the Elder, the Roman writer, wrote Natural History in the first century AD and complained about the drain of Roman gold to India for its exports. So the answer is option (1).

  16. Match the following : Column - I (Cities) : Column - II (On River Bank) (a) Paris : (i) Rhine (b) Geneva : (ii) Rhone (c) Bon : (iii) Dneper (d) Kiev : (iv) Seine

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

    Paris stands on the Seine, Geneva on the Rhone where it leaves Lake Geneva, Bonn on the Rhine, and Kyiv on the Dnieper. That is option (1).

  17. Consider the following statements : (a) The Cuddapha rock system is found in Penganga and Godavari river basins. (b) Iron ore and Manganese is found in Dharwar rock system. (c) Coal is found in Gondawana rock system on ample scale.

    1. Only statement (a) is correct
    2. Only statement (b) is correct
    3. Statements (b) and (c) are correct
    4. Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct

    Cuddapah rocks occur in places such as the Penganga and Godavari valleys, Dharwar rocks are rich in iron ore and manganese, and the Gondwana system holds most of India's coal. All three statements are correct, option (4).

  18. Match the following : (River) : (Details) (a) The Indus : (i) Rises from semi-arid highlands of Chhattisgarh. (b) The Tapi : (ii) Rises in Tibet, near lake Mansarowar. (c) The Narmada : (iii) Rises in the Satpura ranges, in the Betul district. (d) The Kaveri : (iv) Rises in the Amarkantak hills in Madhya Pradesh. (v) Rises in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats.

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
    2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(i)
    4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)

    The Indus rises in Tibet near Lake Mansarovar, the Tapi at Multai in the Satpura range of Betul district, the Narmada at Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh, and the Kaveri at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats. That is option (4).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources

  19. Which of the following districts have their correct density of population and sex ratio as per census 2011 ? District : Density : Sex ratio (a) Thane : 886 : 986 (b) Nashik : 393 : 934 (c) Nanded : 319 : 943 (d) Aurangabad : 366 : 920

    1. (a), (b), (d)
    2. (a), (c), (d)
    3. (b), (c)
    4. (b), (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (b), (c)

    As per Census 2011, Nashik had a density of 393 and sex ratio 934, and Nanded 319 and 943, so (b) and (c) are right. Thane's figures are wrong (its sex ratio was 886 and its density far higher), and the official MPSC key gives option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Districts and Divisions of Maharashtra

  20. Match the important words in the definition of 'optimum population' with the scholars who gave them. (a) Boulding : (i) maximum economic growth (b) Dalton : (ii) maximise standards of living (c) Peterson : (iii) maximum social welfare (d) Car Saunders : (iv) maximise income per head

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

    Optimum population is the population size at which some measure of well-being is highest; Hugh Dalton defined it as the one that maximises income per head, and Boulding linked it to the highest standard of living. The official MPSC key gives option (2), matching Peterson with maximum economic growth and Carr-Saunders with maximum social welfare.

  21. Observe the statements regarding soils in Maharashtra. (a) Regur soil contains Aluminium and Iron on sufficient level. (b) Lateric soil is found in moist climate. (c) Red soil is found in Bhandara district. (d) Red soil contains less amount of organic matter.

    1. Only statement (a) is correct.
    2. Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
    3. Statements (a), (c), (d) are not correct.
    4. Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question. For reference, black (regur) soil is rich in iron, lime and alumina, laterite soil forms under heavy rainfall in hot moist climates such as Konkan, and red soils, found in eastern Vidarbha districts like Bhandara, are generally poor in organic matter.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Soils of India

  22. Examine the following statements and select the proper option. (a) Majority of the coal fields found in India to the east of 78° East Longitude. (b) The states of Orissa, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand constitute more than 50% of the total coal production of India.

    1. (a) and (b) true
    2. (a) true (b) false
    3. (a) false (b) true
    4. (a) and (b) false
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) and (b) true

    Most of India's Gondwana coalfields lie in the Damodar, Mahanadi, Son and Godavari valleys, east of 78° E longitude, and Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand together produce more than half of India's coal. Both statements are true, option (1).

  23. The winds blowing from the subtropical high pressure belt towards the equatorial low pressure area known as __________.

    1. Local winds
    2. Westerlies
    3. Trade winds
    4. Mountain winds
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Trade winds

    Trade winds blow from the subtropical high pressure belts towards the equatorial low (the doldrums), as the north-east and south-east trades. The westerlies blow from the subtropical highs towards the subpolar lows instead. So the answer is option (3).

  24. What happened in Maharashtra due to fragmentation of agricultural land ? (a) Farmer is not able to produce food grains, sufficient for his family. (b) There are obstacle to supply water to agricultural land. (c) The use of modern agricultural tools is uneconomical. (d) To pay individual attention on agriculture is uneconomical.

    1. Only statement (a) is correct.
    2. Statements (a) and (b) are correct.
    3. Statements (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
    4. Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

    When land is split into small scattered plots, a holding may not feed the family, irrigation becomes hard to arrange, modern machinery cannot be used economically, and supervising each plot is costly. All four effects are correct, option (4).

  25. The Ocean floors are divided into the following major divisions. Select the correct option. (a) The continental shelf (b) The continental slope (c) The continental ridge and hills (d) The shallow-deep sea plateau (e) The deep sea plain (f) The oceanic deeps

    1. Only (a), (b), (c) and (e)
    2. Only (a), (b), (e) and (f)
    3. Only (a), (b), (d) and (f)
    4. Only (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (a), (b), (e) and (f)

    The four major divisions of the ocean floor are the continental shelf, the continental slope, the deep sea plain (abyssal plain) and the oceanic deeps (trenches). So the answer is option (2).

  26. Match the following : Dharwar Rock System : Area (a) Champion series : (i) Singhbhum, Bonai (b) Chilpi series : (ii) Delhi, Alwar (c) Rialo series : (iii) Kolar, Raichur (d) Iron-ore series : (iv) Balaghat, Jabalpur

    1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

    Within the Dharwar system, the gold-bearing Champion series is in Kolar and Raichur, the Chilpi Ghat series in Balaghat and Jabalpur, the Raialo series in the Delhi and Alwar area of the Aravallis, and the Iron-ore series in Singhbhum and Bonai. That is option (1).

  27. Find right sequence of tahsils from north to south in Nandurbar district.

    1. Shahada, Dhadgaon, Akkalkuva
    2. Dhadgaon, Taloda, Nandurbar
    3. Navapur, Nandurbar, Dhadgaon
    4. Akkalkuva, Dhadgaon, Nandurbar
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Dhadgaon, Taloda, Nandurbar

    Dhadgaon (Akrani) taluka lies in the Satpura hills at the northern edge of Nandurbar district along the Narmada, Taloda lies to its south, and Nandurbar taluka further south. The official MPSC key gives option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Districts and Divisions of Maharashtra

  28. If the time in India is 12:00 Noon, what would be the time simultaneously at the Greenwich meridian and the International date line, respectively ?

    1. Morning 6:30 and Evening 6:30
    2. Evening 6:30 and Morning 6:30
    3. Morning 6:30 and Evening 5:30
    4. Evening 6:30 and Morning 5:30
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Morning 6:30 and Evening 6:30

    Indian Standard Time is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich, so Greenwich shows 6:30 in the morning. The 180° meridian is 12 hours ahead of Greenwich, so it shows 6:30 in the evening. That is option (1).

  29. Which situation is responsible for the monsoon winds in India ? (a) Extensive land area (b) Sea lies on three sides of India (c) Existence of Jet stream in 30° to 40° latitude belt

    1. Only (a)
    2. Only (b)
    3. (a) and (b)
    4. (a), (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b) and (c)

    The monsoon arises from the different heating of the large Indian landmass and the seas around it on three sides, and its onset and withdrawal are also tied to the shifting of the subtropical westerly jet stream. The official MPSC key treats all three as responsible, option (4).

  30. Which statements are incorrect regarding Chinook winds ? (a) These winds blow on Rocky mountain. (b) These are the local winds. (c) These winds climb Alps mountain from its south side. (d) These winds blow in Rhine river valley.

    1. (a), (b)
    2. (a), (c)
    3. (b), (c)
    4. (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (c), (d)

    The Chinook is a warm, dry local wind that descends the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains in North America. Winds crossing the Alps and blowing down valleys such as the Rhine are the Foehn, not the Chinook, so (c) and (d) are incorrect, option (4).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Local Winds and Seasonal Showers

  31. Which of the following species was declared extinct in India long back 1952 ?

    1. Asian Cheetah
    2. Asian Elephant
    3. Desert Fox
    4. Gangatic Dolphin
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Asian Cheetah

    The Asiatic cheetah was officially declared extinct in India in 1952, the last ones having been shot in the late 1940s. So the answer is option (1).

  32. Habitat destruction can happen due to which of the following activity ? (a) Deforestation (b) Reclamation of Marsh (c) Change of land use pattern (d) Subsistence farming

    1. Only (a), (b) and (d)
    2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
    3. Only (a)
    4. All the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (a), (b) and (c)

    Clearing forests, draining and reclaiming marshes, and converting land to other uses all destroy natural habitats. The official MPSC key gives option (2), (a), (b) and (c), leaving out subsistence farming.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  33. Match the following : Column-I (National Parks) : Column-II (State) (a) Naramdapha : (i) Goa (b) Bhagwan Mahavir : (ii) Uttarakhand (c) Simlipal : (iii) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Dudhwa : (iv) Odisha

    1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question. Namdapha is in Arunachal Pradesh, Bhagwan Mahavir in Goa and Simlipal in Odisha, but Dudhwa National Park is in Uttar Pradesh, not Uttarakhand, so no listed match is fully correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Parks of India

  34. Match the following : Impact of Noise on Human Activities. Column-I (Noise level) : Column-II (Human Activities) (a) 100 dB : (i) Sleep Interference (b) 40 dB : (ii) Loss of Working Efficiency (c) 70 dB : (iii) Permanent Loss of hearing (d) 90 dB : (iv) Speech Interference

    1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

    Even about 40 dB can disturb sleep, around 70 dB interferes with conversation, around 90 dB lowers working efficiency, and long exposure to 100 dB and above can cause permanent hearing loss. That is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

  35. Match the following : Column-I (Valuable Fauna) : Column-II (Importance) (a) Insects : (i) Consume insects (b) Snakes : (ii) Crops-pollinators (c) Frogs : (iii) Soil fertility (d) Earthworms : (iv) Protect damage from Rodents

    1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
    4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

    Many insects such as bees pollinate crops, snakes keep rats and other rodents in check, frogs eat insect pests, and earthworms improve soil fertility. That is option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  36. According to the Planning Commission's Estimates (Expert Group Methodology) about percentage of population below the poverty line population, which option/options of the following is/are correct ? (a) In 1983-84, Rural area poverty was 46.6 percent. (b) 36.0 percent of the population was below the poverty line in 1993-94. (c) 35.0 percent of the population in Urban area was below the poverty line in 1990-91. (d) In India, 37.0 percent of the total population was below the poverty line in 1987-88.

    1. (a) and (c)
    2. (b) and (d)
    3. (a) and (b)
    4. (c) only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question. The Planning Commission's Expert Group (Lakdawala) method put all-India poverty at about 36 percent in 1993-94; the other figures in the statements do not all match the published estimates.

  37. The '"missing" girls and women' phenomenon occurs due to which of the following factors ? (a) preference for male child (b) inadequate data (c) women trafficking (d) high maternal mortality ratio

    1. (a) and (d)
    2. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    3. (a), (c) and (d)
    4. (a), (b) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) and (d)

    The idea of 'missing women', made known by Amartya Sen, refers to excess female deaths caused by son preference (sex-selective abortion and neglect of girls) and by high maternal mortality. So (a) and (d) are the factors, option (1).

  38. Consider the following statement about "Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana" (SAGY), which of the statement is not correct ?

    1. Introduced in September, 2016
    2. MP's can develop 2 or more model village by 2019
    3. Covering over 2,500 villages in India
    4. None of these
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Introduced in September, 2016

    Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was launched on 11 October 2014, not in September 2016. Under it each MP was to develop model villages, at least two by 2019. So statement (1) is the incorrect one.

  39. The 2018 SDG India index indicates : (a) Average index for India at 57. (b) State of Maharashtra is infront runner category. (c) Uttar Pradesh Falls in the best category.

    1. only (a) is correct
    2. only (b) is correct
    3. only (a) and (b) are correct
    4. only (b) and (c) are correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) only (a) is correct

    NITI Aayog's first SDG India Index (2018) gave India a composite score of 57. Maharashtra was in the 'Performer' group rather than the 'Front Runner' group, and Uttar Pradesh was among the lowest scoring 'Aspirant' states. So only (a) is correct, option (1).

  40. Consider the following statements with reference to GATT agreement (General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs). (a) GATT was established in 1948. (b) Initially, the total number of members of GATT was 23 countries. (c) In a way WTO is the successor of GATT. (d) GATT administers all bilateral and multilateral Trade agreements. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?

    1. (a) and (d)
    2. (a), (b) and (d)
    3. (a), (b) and (c)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b) and (c)

    GATT came into force on 1 January 1948 with 23 founding contracting parties, and it was replaced by the WTO in 1995, which carries its rules forward. GATT never administered all bilateral and multilateral trade agreements, so the answer is (a), (b) and (c), option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India

  41. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? (a) National child labour project was launched in 2015. (b) It provides vocational training to children rescued from work force in the age group of 9 - 14 years. (c) It gives stipend to rescued children.

    1. (a) only
    2. (b) only
    3. (a) and (b) only
    4. all of them
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) all of them

    Under the National Child Labour Project, children aged 9 to 14 rescued from work are placed in special training centres that give bridge education and vocational training along with a stipend, so (b) and (c) are correct. The project itself was started in 1988 (its guidelines were revised in 2016), so statement (a) does not hold as written. The official MPSC key gives option (4), treating all three statements as correct.

  42. Match the following : Group - A (Economic Reforms) : Group - B (Objectives) (a) Demonetisation : (i) Checking black money (b) New Benami Law : (ii) Removing fake currency (c) Bankruptcy Law : (iii) Rationalising subsidies (d) Aadhar Act : (iv) Promoting ease of doing business

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

    Demonetisation in 2016 aimed among other things at removing fake currency, the amended Benami law targets black money held in others' names, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code eases doing business, and the Aadhaar Act enables targeted delivery of subsidies. That is option (2).

  43. Consider the following statements : (a) HDI is a composite index of health, education and standard of living. (b) The standard of living is measured by GDP per capita.

    1. (a) only is correct
    2. (b) only is correct
    3. (a) and (b) both are correct
    4. (a) and (b) both are incorrect
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) only is correct

    The Human Development Index combines health (life expectancy), education (years of schooling) and standard of living. The UNDP now measures the standard of living by GNI per capita in PPP terms, not GDP per capita, so only (a) is correct, option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation

  44. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) envisages : (a) Financial inclusion (b) Financial literacy (c) Insurance cover (d) Crop insurance

    1. (a) and (b) only
    2. (b) and (c) only
    3. (a), (b) and (c) only
    4. (b), (c) and (d) only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b) and (c) only

    PMJDY, launched in 2014, is a mission for financial inclusion that also covers financial literacy and gives account holders accident insurance cover through the RuPay card. Crop insurance is a separate scheme, so the answer is option (3).

  45. Consider the following statements : (a) Planning Commission of India was replaced by NITI Aayog in January, 2015. (b) Normative Planning is a guiding principle of NITI Aayog.

    1. (a) only is correct
    2. (b) only is correct
    3. both (a) and (b) are correct
    4. both (a) and (b) are incorrect
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) both (a) and (b) are correct

    NITI Aayog was set up on 1 January 2015 in place of the Planning Commission. The official MPSC key treats statement (b) about normative planning as correct too, so the answer is option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India

  46. Which of the following statement is not correct about International Solar Alliance (ISA) ?

    1. The Alliance is of 121 solar-resource rich countries.
    2. All of these countries, lying fully or partially between Tropic of Cancer and Equator.
    3. The alliance was jointly launched by PM of India and President of France.
    4. The alliance was launched on 30th November 2015 at Paris.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) All of these countries, lying fully or partially between Tropic of Cancer and Equator.

    The International Solar Alliance was launched by India's Prime Minister and France's President at Paris on 30 November 2015 for 121 solar-resource rich countries lying fully or partly between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, not between the Tropic of Cancer and the Equator. So statement (2) is incorrect.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements

  47. Consider the following statements : (a) National Food Security Mission (NFSM) was launched in 2007-2008. (b) It aims at increasing production of rice, wheat and pulses.

    1. only (a) is correct
    2. only (b) is correct
    3. both (a) and (b) are correct
    4. both (a) and (b) are incorrect
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) both (a) and (b) are correct

    The National Food Security Mission was launched in 2007-08 to raise the production of rice, wheat and pulses through area expansion and higher productivity. Both statements are correct, option (3).

  48. The objective/s of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) : (a) Improved health of women and children (b) Women empowerment (c) Additional employment generation

    1. (a) and (b) only
    2. (b) and (c) only
    3. (a) only
    4. All the three above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a) only

    Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (2016) gives free LPG connections to women of poor households so that clean cooking fuel replaces smoky chulhas and protects the health of women and children. The official MPSC key gives option (3), (a) only.

  49. In which year, the 'Indo-US Dollar Matching Grant' project was launched ?

    1. 2004
    2. 2000
    3. 2009
    4. 2005
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) 2004

    The official MPSC key gives 2004 as the year the Indo-US Dollar Matching Grant project was launched, option (1).

  50. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect ? (a) GNP is the total money value of goods and services produced by the nationals during the given year. (b) The part of income produced in the country but earned by foreigners is included in GNP. (c) Per capita income shows the marginal income of the people in the country.

    1. (a) and (b)
    2. (a) and (c)
    3. (b) and (c)
    4. All the three above are correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (b) and (c)

    GNP measures output produced by a country's nationals, so income earned within the country by foreigners is excluded from it, making (b) wrong. Per capita income is the average income per person, not marginal income, so (c) is also wrong. The answer is option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation

  51. Consider the following statements : (a) The speed of telecommunication satellite relative to earth is zero. (b) Hence it appears to be stationary to a person on the earth.

    1. Both statements are false
    2. (a) is true and is a reason of (b)
    3. (a) is true and is not a reason of (b)
    4. (a) is correct, (b) is not
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) is true and is a reason of (b)

    A geostationary communication satellite orbits once in 24 hours in the direction of the Earth's rotation, so its speed relative to the Earth is zero. That is exactly why it appears fixed in the sky to an observer on the ground, option (2).

  52. When a compression of sound waves is incident on rigid wall, it is reflected as :

    1. Compression with a phase change of π (by 180°)
    2. Compression with no phase change
    3. Rarefaction with a phase change of π/2 (by 90°)
    4. Rarefaction with no phase change
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Compression with no phase change

    At a rigid wall the pressure wave is reflected without change of phase, so a compression comes back as a compression (it is the particle displacement that reverses). The answer is option (2).

  53. Consider the following statements : (a) The ratio of ¹⁴C to ¹²C changes continuously for dead bodies or plants. (b) Radioactive isotope Carbon-14 is used in a Carbon dating technique.

    1. Statement (a) is true and is a reason of (b)
    2. Both (a) and (b) are not true
    3. (a) is true but (b) is false
    4. (a) and (b) are not related to each other
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Statement (a) is true and is a reason of (b)

    After an organism dies it stops taking in carbon, and its carbon-14 decays steadily, so the ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 keeps falling. Measuring this ratio is the basis of radiocarbon dating, so (a) is true and explains (b), option (1).

  54. Which of the following properties of atom could be explained correctly by Thompson Model of atom ?

    1. Overall neutrality of atom
    2. Spectra of hydrogen atom
    3. Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in atom
    4. Stability of atom
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Overall neutrality of atom

    In Thomson's plum pudding model, negative electrons are embedded in a sphere of positive charge whose total charge balances them, so it explains why an atom is electrically neutral. It could not explain the hydrogen spectrum, the nucleus or neutrons. The answer is option (1).

  55. Tritium has a half-life of 12.5 years, undergoing beta decay. What fraction of original Tritium will remain undecayed after 25 years ?

    1. 0 (zero)
    2. 0.5
    3. 0.25
    4. 0.125
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) 0.25

    25 years is two half-lives of 12.5 years each. After one half-life half remains and after two a quarter remains, so the fraction left is 0.25, option (3).

  56. A washing machine rated 300 Watt is operated for one hour/day. If the cost of one unit is ₹ 3.00, what will be the cost of the energy to operate a washing machine for the month of March ?

    1. ₹ 279.00
    2. ₹ 31.00
    3. ₹ 27.00
    4. ₹ 27.90
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) ₹ 27.90

    March has 31 days, so energy used is 0.3 kW × 1 hour × 31 = 9.3 kWh (units). At ₹ 3 per unit the cost is 9.3 × 3 = ₹ 27.90, option (4).

  57. Match the following with correct options. (a) Inexhaustible resources : (i) Anthropogenic activities (b) Stratosphere : (ii) Fossil fuels like coal and petrol (c) Non-renewable resources : (iii) Solar Energy (d) Chlorofluorocarbons : (iv) Rich layer of Ozone

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

    Solar energy is an inexhaustible resource, the stratosphere holds the ozone-rich layer, coal and petrol are non-renewable fossil fuels, and chlorofluorocarbons come from human (anthropogenic) activities. That is option (3).

  58. "Currently there is increased demand for fresh and good quality flowers for human consumption worldwide". The above statement is based on the following potential values of flowers. Which one is not appropriate with the context of above statement.

    1. Flowers are endowed with natural antioxidants and scavenging activity of reactive oxygen radicals.
    2. Flowers are rich source of Anthocyanins.
    3. Flowers are attractive and help in pollination mechanism.
    4. Flowers are important source of vitamins and minerals.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Flowers are attractive and help in pollination mechanism.

    Demand for edible flowers rests on their food value: antioxidants, anthocyanin pigments, vitamins and minerals. Being attractive and helping pollination is a role of flowers in the plant's own reproduction and has nothing to do with human consumption, so option (3) is the one not appropriate.

  59. In relation to Environment match the following. (a) Biosphere : (i) Oceans, Seas, River, Lakes etc. (b) Lithosphere : (ii) Plants, Animals, Microbes etc. (c) Hydrosphere : (iii) Thick gaseous cover surrounding the Earth (d) Atmosphere : (iv) Solid Component of Earth

    1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

    The biosphere is the living part (plants, animals, microbes), the lithosphere is the solid rocky part, the hydrosphere is all water bodies, and the atmosphere is the gaseous envelope around the Earth. That is option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  60. ________ is an Artificial method of Asexual Reproduction, used to produce plants, combining desired stem with favourable Root Characteristic.

    1. Budding
    2. Layering
    3. Cutting
    4. Grafting
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Grafting

    In grafting, a shoot (scion) of a plant with desired stem or fruit traits is joined to the rooted stock of another plant with good root qualities, and the two grow as one. So the answer is option (4).

  61. Match the following (use correct codes) : (a) Aristotle : (i) Father of Medicine (b) Theophrastus : (ii) Father of Genetics (c) Hippocrates : (iii) Father of Botany (d) Gregor Johann Mendel : (iv) Father of Biology

    1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
    4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

    Aristotle is called the father of biology, Theophrastus the father of botany, Hippocrates the father of medicine, and Gregor Mendel the father of genetics. That is option (3).

  62. Which of the following statement/s is/are true for sarcomere ? (a) A sarcomere is any segment of the fibre. (b) It is a unit of histological structure and physiological action.

    1. Only (a)
    2. Only (b)
    3. Both (a) and (b)
    4. None of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Both (a) and (b)

    A sarcomere is the repeating segment of a muscle fibril between two Z lines, and it is both the structural and the functional (contractile) unit of striated muscle. The official MPSC key treats both statements as true, option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Human Body: Key Facts

  63. Which of the following Protozoan disease is transmitted by bite of tse tse fly ?

    1. Sleeping sickness
    2. Delhi boli
    3. Kala azar
    4. Chaga's disease
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Sleeping sickness

    African sleeping sickness is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma brucei and is spread by the bite of the tsetse fly. Kala azar is spread by sandflies and Chagas disease by triatomine (kissing) bugs. The answer is option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens

  64. The cell was first time described by __________.

    1. Lamarck
    2. Schwann
    3. Robert Hooke
    4. Rudolf Virchow
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Robert Hooke

    Robert Hooke first described and named cells in 1665 after viewing thin slices of cork under his microscope. So the answer is option (3).

  65. Which of the following are Oxidation-reduction reactions ? (a) 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO (b) MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂ (c) 2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl (d) 2NaBr + H₂O₂ → 2NaOH + Br₂

    1. Only (a), (d)
    2. Only (b), (c)
    3. Only (a), (b)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above

    In each reaction one substance is oxidised and another reduced: Mg and Na lose electrons to oxygen and chlorine, chloride is oxidised to Cl₂ while MnO₂ is reduced, and bromide is oxidised to Br₂ by hydrogen peroxide. All four are redox reactions, option (4).

  66. In vertibrates, inside the cells and tissues, there is a __________ concentration of K⁺ ions and __________ concentration of Na⁺ ions.

    1. Low, High
    2. Low, Low
    3. High, Low
    4. High, High
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) High, Low

    The sodium-potassium pump keeps potassium ions concentrated inside cells and pumps sodium ions out, so the inside of the cell has high K⁺ and low Na⁺. The answer is option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Human Body: Key Facts

  67. The EMF of a chemical cell is positive, when the free energy change of the reaction is __________.

    1. > 0
    2. < 0
    3. = 0
    4. No relationship between the free energy change and EMF
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) < 0

    The free energy change and cell EMF are related by ΔG = -nFE, so a positive EMF corresponds to a negative ΔG, meaning a spontaneous cell reaction. The answer is option (2).

  68. In modern periodic table, which of the following statements about atomic radius are true ? (a) Increases from top to bottom (b) Decreases from top to bottom (c) Increases from left to right (d) Decreases from left to right

    1. (a), (d)
    2. (a), (c)
    3. (b), (d)
    4. (b), (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (d)

    Down a group new electron shells are added, so atomic radius increases. Across a period the nuclear charge rises while electrons enter the same shell, pulling them closer, so the radius decreases. The answer is option (1).

  69. Which of the following is/are terpenoid/s ?

    1. Only menthol
    2. Only Vitamin A
    3. Both menthol as well as Vitamin A
    4. Neither menthol nor Vitamin A
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Both menthol as well as Vitamin A

    Terpenoids are built from isoprene units. Menthol is a monoterpenoid and vitamin A (retinol) is a diterpenoid, so both are terpenoids, option (3).

  70. The number of unpaired electrons in tetrahedral [Ni(CO)₄] complex is __________.

    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) 0

    In Ni(CO)₄ nickel is in the zero oxidation state, and the strong-field CO ligands pair up its 3d electrons, giving a 3d¹⁰ configuration with sp³ hybridisation. There are no unpaired electrons and the complex is diamagnetic, option (1).

  71. Which of the following statements are true about the Cabinet Secretariat ? (a) It came into existence in 1950. (b) It operates under the direction of Prime Minister. (c) It is a Line agency. (d) It functions as the Chief coordinating agency in the Central Government.

    1. (a) and (b)
    2. (a), (b) and (c)
    3. (b) and (d)
    4. (a), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (b) and (d)

    The Cabinet Secretariat works directly under the Prime Minister and acts as the chief coordinating body among ministries of the central government. It is a staff agency, not a line agency, and it dates from 1947, so the answer is (b) and (d), option (3).

  72. Consider the following statements and choose the correct code. (a) In India, a constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior permission of the President. (b) In U.S.A., every constitutional amendment must be ratified by at least two-thirds of the state legislature. (c) In Switzerland, no alteration of the constitution can be effected without resorting to a referendum. (d) In Australia, the constitution can be altered only by an Act passed by an absolute majority in both houses.

    1. (a), (b), (c)
    2. (b), (c), (d)
    3. Only (a) and (b)
    4. Only (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (c) and (d)

    Under Article 368 an amendment bill in India needs no prior permission of the President, and in the USA an amendment must be ratified by three-fourths of the states, not two-thirds, so (a) and (b) are wrong. Swiss constitutional changes require a referendum, and the official MPSC key gives option (4), (c) and (d).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments

  73. Consider the following statements regarding the position of the Speaker of Lok Sabha. (a) His/her salary and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. (b) He/she has no vote except in case of a tie. (c) He/she can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of the members present and voting in the house. (d) He/she has a higher rank than Deputy Prime Minister. Which of the above statements are correct ?

    1. (a), (b), (c)
    2. (b), (c), (d)
    3. (a) and (b)
    4. All above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a) and (b)

    The Speaker's salary is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and the Speaker votes only to break a tie. Removal needs a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (effective majority), not just those present and voting, and in the order of precedence the Speaker ranks below the Deputy Prime Minister. So only (a) and (b) are correct, option (3).

  74. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched ? (a) Calling attention Motion - To draw attention of the Minister on matters of urgent public importance. (b) Adjournment Motion - To adjourn the House before the expiry of the time. (c) Privilege Motion - To draw attention of the Speaker towards when the proceedings of the House do not follow rules of procedure. (d) Point of Order - To draw attention of the Speaker towards incorrect/incomplete answer by a Minister.

    1. (a), (b)
    2. (a), (c)
    3. (b), (c), (d)
    4. (a), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (b), (c), (d)

    A calling attention motion is correctly described. An adjournment motion is moved to set aside normal business and discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance, a privilege motion concerns a breach of parliamentary privilege such as a minister giving wrong facts, and a point of order is raised when proceedings break the rules. So (b), (c) and (d) are wrongly matched, option (3).

  75. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

    1. No bills for the formation of new state shall be introduced in either house of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President.
    2. The President before introducing the bill in the Parliament shall refer it to the concerned State Legislature for its views within a specified time limit.
    3. Parliament can form a new state only by a law passed by a special majority.
    4. The Parliament is not bound to accept the views (opinion) of the State Legislature.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Parliament can form a new state only by a law passed by a special majority.

    Under Articles 3 and 4, a law forming a new state is passed by a simple majority and is not treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368. The other statements, on the President's recommendation, reference to the state legislature and Parliament not being bound by its views, are correct. So statement (3) is wrong.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  76. Which of the following statements regarding Central Information Commission is correct ?

    1. It is a constitutional body includes one Chief Information Commissioner and not more than Five Information Commissioners (ICs).
    2. The CIC and ICs are appointed by the President on the recommendation of committee headed by the Home Minister.
    3. They hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years.
    4. They are not eligible for reappointment, but Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner but cannot hold office for more than a total of five years including his term as Information Commissioner.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) They are not eligible for reappointment, but Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner but cannot hold office for more than a total of five years including his term as Information Commissioner.

    The Central Information Commission is a statutory body under the RTI Act 2005 with up to ten Information Commissioners, appointed on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister, and the age limit was 65, not 70. The Act bars reappointment and lets an Information Commissioner become Chief Information Commissioner within a total of five years, so statement (4) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies

  77. The situations that leads to 'Judicial Activism' are : (a) When the legislatures fails to discharge its responsibilities. (b) In case of hung legislature where the government is very weak and instable. (c) When the government fail to protect the basic rights of the citizens. (d) When the party in power misuses the courts of law for ulterior motives.

    1. (a), (b), (c)
    2. (b), (c), (d)
    3. All above
    4. Only (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) All above

    Judicial activism grows when the legislature fails in its duties, when a hung legislature produces a weak and unstable government, when the government fails to protect citizens' basic rights, and when the ruling party misuses the courts for its own ends. All four are such situations, option (3).

  78. Consider the following provisions. (a) The residuary powers have been left with the centre. (b) The powers divided between states and the central government. (c) President enjoys absolute veto over state bills. (d) The Union can change the name, area and boundary of a state without its consent. Which of the above, if absent, would make the Indian Constitution more Federal in nature ?

    1. (a) only
    2. (a), (c) and (d)
    3. (b), (c) and (d)
    4. All above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a), (c) and (d)

    Residuary powers with the Centre, the President's absolute veto over state bills reserved for him, and Parliament's power to change a state's name, area or boundary without its consent are all unitary features. Division of powers between Centre and states is itself a federal feature, so removing (a), (c) and (d) would make the Constitution more federal, option (2).

  79. Which one of the following matters stands excluded from the jurisdiction of Inter-state council in India ?

    1. Enquiring into and advice upon disputes which may have arisen between the states.
    2. Adjudication of any dispute with respect to the use, distribution or control of water of any inter-state river.
    3. Investigation and discussion of subjects in which some or all of the states or the Union and one or more states, have common interest.
    4. Making recommendation on any such subject and in particular, recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Adjudication of any dispute with respect to the use, distribution or control of water of any inter-state river.

    Article 263 lets the Inter-State Council inquire into and advise on disputes between states, discuss subjects of common interest and recommend better coordination. Adjudication of inter-state river water disputes falls under Article 262 and is done by tribunals set up under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, so option (2) is excluded.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  80. Which one of the following statements about 'Privilege Committee' is not correct ?

    1. Rule No. 222 of the Lok Sabha and 187 of the Rajya Sabha governs privilege.
    2. In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a Committee of Privileges consisting of 15 members.
    3. In the Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Chairperson heads the Committee of Privileges, that consists of 15 members.
    4. None of the above.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) In the Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Chairperson heads the Committee of Privileges, that consists of 15 members.

    The Rajya Sabha Committee of Privileges is headed by the Deputy Chairman but has 10 members, not 15. The Lok Sabha committee of 15 members is nominated by the Speaker, and privilege matters are governed by Rule 222 in the Lok Sabha and Rule 187 in the Rajya Sabha. So statement (3) is incorrect.

  81. Consider the following statements about 'National Youth Policy'. (a) The First National Youth Policy was adopted in 1986. (b) In the 2003 policy, 'Youth' was defined as a person of age between 15-35. (c) In the 2014 policy, the youth age-group is defined as 15-29 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    1. Only (a)
    2. (a) and (b)
    3. (b) and (c)
    4. Only (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (c)

    The first National Youth Policy was adopted in 1988, and the 2003 policy defined youth as persons aged 13 to 35. The National Youth Policy 2014 defines youth as those aged 15 to 29, so only (c) is correct, option (4).

  82. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (a) Article-111 of the constitution deals with the definition of money bills. (b) A bill categorised as financial bill under Article-117(3) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (c) A bill categorised as financial bill under Article-117(1) cannot be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha.

    1. Only (a)
    2. (b) and (c)
    3. None of the above
    4. Only (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) None of the above

    Money bills are defined in Article 110, while Article 111 deals with assent to bills. A financial bill under Article 117(3) can be introduced in either House, and a financial bill under Article 117(1), though introduced only in the Lok Sabha, can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. So none of the statements is correct, option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  83. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

    1. Under Article 200, the Governor may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.
    2. President may direct the Governor to return the bill for the reconsideration of the State Legislature.
    3. If the bill is passed again by the State Legislature with or without amendments and presented again to the President for his assent, the President is bound to give his assent to the bill.
    4. The constitution has not prescribed any time limit within which the President has to take decision with regard to a bill reserved by Governor for his consideration.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) If the bill is passed again by the State Legislature with or without amendments and presented again to the President for his assent, the President is bound to give his assent to the bill.

    Under Article 201, when a reserved state bill is passed again after reconsideration and sent back, the President is not bound to give assent and may still withhold it. The other statements are correct, so statement (3) is the wrong one.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  84. Which of the following has been wrongly listed as criteria for appointment as a judge of the High Court ?

    1. He must have been held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years.
    2. He must have been an advocate of a High Court for ten years.
    3. He must, in the opinion of the President, be a distinguished jurist.
    4. None of the above.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) He must, in the opinion of the President, be a distinguished jurist.

    Article 217 requires a High Court judge to have held judicial office in India for ten years or to have been a High Court advocate for ten years. Being a distinguished jurist in the President's opinion is a qualification only for Supreme Court judges under Article 124, so option (3) is wrongly listed.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  85. 'No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the state or receiving aid out of state funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.' This provision is contained in which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution ?

    1. 30
    2. 16
    3. 28
    4. 29
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) 29

    This is Article 29(2), part of the cultural and educational rights in Part III. Article 30 deals with the right of minorities to set up educational institutions. So the answer is option (4), Article 29.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  86. Find the incorrect statements about Gaganyaan Mission of India. (a) Four pilots from Indian Air Force were short listed to be astronauts of Gaganyaan. (b) They will be trained at Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Centre in Russia. (c) This mission was announced by Prime Minister in 2014. (d) It is scheduled for 2022 with team of 5 crew members and a month long stay in space.

    1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    2. (b), (c), (d)
    3. (c), (d)
    4. (b), (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (c), (d)

    Four Indian Air Force pilots were shortlisted and trained at the Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Centre in Russia, so (a) and (b) are correct. The mission was announced by the Prime Minister on 15 August 2018, and it was planned for a three-member crew staying up to about a week, so (c) and (d) are incorrect, option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: ISRO Space Missions

  87. The largest invertebrate, a spineless creature, in the world is __________.

    1. Octopus
    2. Cuttle Fish
    3. Colossal squid
    4. Giant squid
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Colossal squid

    The colossal squid of the Southern Ocean is the heaviest known invertebrate, outweighing even the longer but slimmer giant squid. The official MPSC key gives option (3).

  88. Who amongst the following was chosen as the 'Time Person of the Year, 2019' by the Internationally acclaimed magazine-Time ?

    1. Greta Thunberg
    2. Malala Yousafzai
    3. Rishi Joshi
    4. Kate Winslet
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Greta Thunberg

    Time magazine named Swedish climate activist Greta Thunberg its Person of the Year for 2019; at 16 she was the youngest person ever chosen. So the answer is option (1).

  89. Consider the following statements : (a) The first phase of the Chabahar Port was inaugurated in December 2017 by Iranian President Hassan Rouhani. (b) India has taken over operations of the strategic Chabahar Port. This is the first time India will be operating a port outside its territory. Which is/are the above incorrect statement/s ?

    1. Only (a)
    2. Only (b)
    3. Both (a) and (b)
    4. Neither (a) nor (b)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

    President Hassan Rouhani inaugurated the first phase (Shahid Beheshti terminal) of Chabahar port in December 2017, and India Ports Global took over operations there in December 2018, India's first port operation abroad. Both statements are correct, so neither is incorrect, option (4).

  90. Objectives of National Skill Development Agency of India are : (a) Support to government of India's five year plan for skills training. (b) Organize skills development across all factors. (c) Evaluate the effectiveness of existing skill development programs. (d) Empowerment of women through economic independence for betterment of society.

    1. Only (a), (b), (c)
    2. Only (b), (c), (d)
    3. Only (a), (b), (d)
    4. Only (a), (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b), (c)

    The National Skill Development Agency was set up in 2013 to coordinate and harmonise skill development efforts across sectors, support the government's plans for skilling and assess the effectiveness of existing skill schemes. Women's empowerment is not among its stated objectives, so the answer is option (1).

  91. Select the correct statement/s (Regarding 15th Finance Commission) : (a) N.K. Singh is the Chairman of Commission. (b) Arvind Mehta is the Member of Commission. (c) Dr. Anoop Singh is the Secretary of Commission.

    1. Only (a)
    2. Only (a) and (b)
    3. Only (b) and (c)
    4. Only (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a)

    The Fifteenth Finance Commission was chaired by N.K. Singh. Arvind Mehta was its Secretary and Dr. Anoop Singh one of its members, so (b) and (c) have the roles reversed and only (a) is correct, option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies

  92. Find the correct statements about Aarey Milk Colony. (a) It came up in 1946. (b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru inaugurated the Aarey Colony. (c) After 1970 film city was carved out of Aarey Forest. (d) It came up on the land given to the department of dairy development.

    1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    2. (b), (c), (d)
    3. (b), (c)
    4. (b), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (b), (c), (d)

    Aarey Milk Colony in Mumbai was set up around 1949 on land given for dairy development and was inaugurated by Jawaharlal Nehru, and Film City at Goregaon was later carved out of the Aarey area in the 1970s. Since it did not come up in 1946, the official MPSC key gives option (2), (b), (c) and (d).

  93. Select the correct statements about Whip in India : (a) Whip is responsible for the party's discipline and behaviour in the house of legislature. (b) India inherited this concept from the British Parliamentary System. (c) There can be chief whip, assisted by additional whips. (d) In presidential elections whips cannot direct a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) to vote in a particular fashion.

    1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    2. (a), (b), (c)
    3. (a), (c)
    4. (a), (b), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

    A whip enforces party discipline in the House, the office comes from British parliamentary practice, parties have a chief whip assisted by other whips, and whips cannot be issued for presidential elections, which use a secret ballot. All four statements are correct, option (1).

  94. Which Indian bowlers to pick up an International hat-trick in 2019 ? (a) Kuldeep Yadav (b) Mohammed Shami (c) Jasprit Bumrah (d) Ravindra Jadeja

    1. (a), (b), (c)
    2. (b), (c), (d)
    3. (a), (b), (d)
    4. (a), (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (b), (c)

    In 2019 Mohammed Shami took a hat-trick against Afghanistan in the World Cup, Jasprit Bumrah took a Test hat-trick against the West Indies, and Kuldeep Yadav took his second ODI hat-trick against the West Indies. Jadeja did not, so the answer is option (1).

  95. Find the correct statements about Amazon forests. (a) It is tropical rain forest. (b) It has Atlantic Ocean at its east side. (c) It occupies 40% of Ecuador's total area. (d) It is home of Macaws, Toucans and Black Skimmers.

    1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    2. (a), (b), (c)
    3. (a), (d)
    4. (a), (b), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (d)

    The Amazon is the world's largest tropical rainforest, it stretches east to the Atlantic coast, and it is home to birds such as macaws, toucans and black skimmers. The official MPSC key does not accept the figure for Ecuador and gives option (4), (a), (b) and (d).

  96. Which of the following decisions were taken with reference to Iranian Women in 2019 ?

    1. Right to watch football in stadium
    2. Right to vote
    3. Right to own family property
    4. Right to Divorce
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Right to watch football in stadium

    In October 2019 Iran allowed women to enter Tehran's Azadi stadium to watch a men's football match for the first time in decades, after pressure from FIFA. Iranian women already had the vote since 1963, so the answer is option (1).

  97. Shrinivas Fokale won the Best Child Artist Award for his film 'Naal' at the 2019 National Film Awards. Who amongst the following has directed this movie ?

    1. Ankush Chaudhari
    2. Nagraj Manjule
    3. Sudhakar Reddy Yakkanti
    4. Gargi Kulkarni
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Sudhakar Reddy Yakkanti

    The Marathi film Naal (2018) was directed by Sudhakar Reddy Yakkanti and produced by Nagraj Manjule, who also acted in it. So the director is option (3).

  98. Find the incorrect statements from below : (a) Sahitya Academy Awards 2019 were given in 23 languages. (b) These awards can be given to biography but not to autobiography. (c) Marathi writer Anuradha Patil received award for her short stories in 2019. (d) Mr. Shashi Tharoor's book won prize in English category in 2019.

    1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    2. (a), (b)
    3. (b), (c)
    4. (a), (b), (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c)

    Shashi Tharoor won the 2019 Sahitya Akademi Award in English for 'An Era of Darkness', so (d) is correct. Anuradha Patil won for her poetry collection, not short stories, and autobiographies are also eligible, so (b) and (c) are wrong; the official MPSC key also treats (a) as incorrect and gives option (4).

  99. Find out correct statements regarding Air Quality Index (AQI) in India. (a) It reports quality of air on a daily basis. (b) Higher the AQI value, greater the level of air pollution. (c) India follows 500 points scale. (d) Monitors record concentration of the major pollutants to calculate AQI.

    1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    2. (a), (b), (c)
    3. (b), (c)
    4. (b), (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

    India's National Air Quality Index, launched in 2014, reports air quality daily on a 0 to 500 scale, where a higher value means more pollution, and it is calculated from monitored concentrations of major pollutants such as PM10, PM2.5, NO₂, SO₂, CO, O₃, NH₃ and lead. All four statements are correct, option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

  100. Find the incorrect statements about boundary dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka. (a) Belgaum is claimed by Maharashtra on linguistic basis. (b) Belgaum was part of Hyderabad princely state before independence. (c) Currently Belgaum is district of Karnataka. (d) Boundary dispute case over Belgaum is pending before Bombay High Court from many years.

    1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    2. (b), (c)
    3. (b), (d)
    4. (a), (b), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (b), (d)

    Maharashtra claims Belgaum (Belagavi) because of its Marathi-speaking population, and it is now a district of Karnataka. Before independence Belgaum was part of the Bombay Presidency, not Hyderabad State, and Maharashtra's case is pending in the Supreme Court, not the Bombay High Court, so (b) and (d) are incorrect, option (3).

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