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Maharashtra Gazetted Civil Services Combined Preliminary Examination 2024, Paper 1

Series A. Questions and answers from the official MPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक MPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real MPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

  1. Who among the following founded the 'Tilak School of Politics' ?

    1. Bipinchandra Pal
    2. Shripad Amrut Dange
    3. Lala Lajpatrai
    4. Arvind Ghosh
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Lala Lajpatrai

    Lala Lajpat Rai set up the Tilak School of Politics at Lahore in 1921 in memory of Bal Gangadhar Tilak. So option (3) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  2. Who among the following gave a personal sum of ₹ 25,000 to the Elphinstone Fund ?

    1. Balshastri Jambhekar
    2. Ramkrishna Bhandarkar
    3. Nana Jagannath Shankarseth
    4. Waman Aabaji Modak
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Nana Jagannath Shankarseth

    Nana Jagannath Shankarseth, the Bombay philanthropist and educationist, contributed generously to the fund raised in honour of Mountstuart Elphinstone, which led to the Elphinstone institution. The official MPSC key gives option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra

  3. Who was the prominent participant in the Satyagraha at Dharasana in the Civil Disobedience Movement ?

    1. Kamaladevi Chatopadhyaya
    2. Ambika Chakrawarti
    3. Kasturba Gandhi
    4. Sarojini Naidu
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Sarojini Naidu

    After Gandhi's arrest in May 1930, Sarojini Naidu led the satyagraha raid on the Dharasana salt works in Gujarat. So option (4) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  4. Who was the leader in the uprising of 1857 in Kanpur ?

    1. Tatya Tope
    2. Azimulla
    3. Nanasaheb
    4. Maulavi Ahmedulla
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Nanasaheb

    At Kanpur the revolt of 1857 was led by Nana Saheb, the adopted son of the last Peshwa Baji Rao II, helped by Tatya Tope and Azimullah Khan. So option (3) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  5. Noted Warali painter Jivya Soma Mhase was honored with which of the following awards ? (a) Padma Bhushan (b) Padma shri (c) Shilpguru (d) National award for tribal arts

    1. (a) and (d) are correct
    2. Only (a) is correct
    3. (b), (c) and (d) are correct
    4. Only (d) is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

    Jivya Soma Mhase, the Warli artist from Thane district, received the National Award for Tribal Art (1976), the Shilp Guru award (2002) and the Padma Shri (2011); he did not receive the Padma Bhushan. So option (3) is correct.

  6. Simuka was the founder of the __________ dynasty.

    1. Satavahana
    2. Sunga
    3. Kanva
    4. Saka
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Satavahana

    Simuka is named in the Puranas and in the Naneghat records as the founder of the Satavahana dynasty of the Deccan. So option (1) is correct.

  7. Who was the main female collaborator with Mahatma Gandhi in the struggle of mill workers in Ahmedabad ?

    1. Sarojini Naidu
    2. Anusaya Sarabhai
    3. Kasturba Gandhi
    4. Aruna Asaf Ali
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Anusaya Sarabhai

    In the Ahmedabad mill strike of 1918, Anusuya Sarabhai stood with Gandhi on the side of the workers, even though her brother Ambalal Sarabhai led the mill owners. So option (2) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  8. Identify the wrong pairs. (a) Abdul Samad - Famous painter (b) Takhte Taus - Peacock throne (c) Prince Azam Shah - Bahamani ruler (d) Bibi ka Makbara - Memorial of Dilras Bano

    1. Only (c)
    2. (a) and (d)
    3. (b) and (d)
    4. (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (c)

    Abdul Samad was a noted Mughal court painter, Takht-e-Taus is Shah Jahan's Peacock Throne, and Bibi ka Makbara at Aurangabad was built by Prince Azam Shah in memory of his mother Dilras Banu Begum. Azam Shah was a Mughal prince, a son of Aurangzeb, not a Bahmani ruler, so only pair (c) is wrong.

  9. What were the main principles of the National Education Policy of 1968 based on the recommendations of the Kothari Commission ? (a) Compulsory and free education till the age of 14 years. (b) Higher position and improved pay for teachers. (c) At least 10% of gross national income spent on education.

    1. Only (a) and (b)
    2. Only (b) and (c)
    3. Only (a) and (c)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a) and (b)

    The 1968 policy called for free and compulsory education up to 14 years and for better status and pay for teachers. The spending target it set was 6 percent of national income, not 10 percent, so statement (c) is wrong.

  10. Which of the following taxes was collected from Hindu and Muslim landlords respectively during the Sultanate rule ?

    1. Jizya and Shar
    2. Jizya and Khams
    3. Khiraj and Zakat
    4. Khams and Zakat
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Khiraj and Zakat

    Under the Delhi Sultanate, Kharaj (Khiraj) was the land tax levied on non-Muslim landholders, while Zakat was the religious tax paid by Muslims. The official MPSC key gives option (3).

  11. After the split in the Indian National Congress in 1907, who made the statement 'National Congress Collapsed at Surat, this is our victory' ?

    1. Lord Curzon
    2. Lokmanya Tilak
    3. Lord Morley
    4. Lord Minto
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Lord Minto

    Viceroy Lord Minto welcomed the Surat split of 1907 between Moderates and Extremists, remarking that the fall of the Congress at Surat was a great triumph for the British. So option (4) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  12. Abdul Razzaq, a Persian traveller visited Vijayanagar during the period of which of the following rulers ?

    1. Harihar
    2. Krishnadevrai
    3. Devrai I
    4. Devrai II
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Devrai II

    Abdur Razzaq, an envoy of the Timurid ruler Shah Rukh, visited Vijayanagara in 1443 during the reign of Deva Raya II. So option (4) is correct.

  13. Which of the following literature was written by King Harshavardhana ? (a) Priyadarshika (b) Harshacharita (c) Ratnawali (d) Naganand

    1. Only (a), (c) and (d)
    2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
    3. Only (a), (b) and (d)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (c) and (d)

    Harshavardhana is credited with the three Sanskrit plays Priyadarshika, Ratnavali and Nagananda. Harshacharita is the biography of Harsha written by his court poet Banabhatta, so option (1) is correct.

  14. Which of the following objectives was outlined in the Nehru Report ?

    1. Achieving Dominion Status
    2. Creation of Two Nations
    3. Achieving Home Rule
    4. To gain complete Independence
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Achieving Dominion Status

    The Nehru Report of 1928, drafted by a committee under Motilal Nehru, demanded Dominion Status for India within the British Empire. The demand for complete independence (Purna Swaraj) came later at the Lahore Congress of 1929.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  15. Match the correct pairs of extension centers of Swadeshi Movement and their concerned persons. (a) Mumbai : (i) Chidambaram Pillai (b) Delhi : (ii) Lala Lajpat Rai (c) Punjab : (iii) Lokmanya Tilak (d) Madras : (iv) Syed Raza Haider

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
    4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

    The Swadeshi movement spread to Bombay under Tilak, to Delhi under Syed Haider Raza, to Punjab under Lala Lajpat Rai and to Madras under V. O. Chidambaram Pillai. This gives (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i), which is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of intensive subsistence agriculture ? (a) Intensive cultivation (b) Animal husbandry is a complementary business to agriculture (c) The vast size of the farm (d) Maximum yield production per hectare.

    1. Only (a)
    2. (b) and (d)
    3. Only (c)
    4. (b), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (c)

    Intensive subsistence farming is practised on small, fragmented holdings with heavy use of labour to get high yields per hectare, often with livestock as a side activity. Large farm size belongs to extensive commercial farming, so only (c) is not a feature.

  17. Which of the following is not the pattern of Urban settlement ?

    1. Checker - board
    2. Circular
    3. Dispersed
    4. Linear
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Dispersed

    Towns commonly show grid (checker-board), circular (radial) or linear layouts. A dispersed pattern, with houses scattered over farmland, is typical of rural settlements, not urban ones.

  18. Match the correct pairs : Country : National Park (a) India : (i) Jim Corbett (b) Ecuador : (ii) Grand Canyon (c) U.S.A. : (iii) Galapagos (d) Australia : (iv) Great barrier reef

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

    Jim Corbett National Park is in Uttarakhand, India; the Galapagos National Park belongs to Ecuador; Grand Canyon National Park is in Arizona, USA; and the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park is off Queensland, Australia. This is option (3).

  19. In which district is the Hetwane major irrigation scheme located ?

    1. Sindhudurg
    2. Satara
    3. Beed
    4. Raigad
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Raigad

    The Hetwane irrigation project on the Bhogeshwari river is in Pen taluka of Raigad district. So option (4) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Dams and Rivers of Maharashtra

  20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of sedimentary rock ?

    1. Particles of many sizes are organized in a single rocks layer.
    2. The rocks are huge and hard.
    3. Fossils are mainly found in rocks.
    4. Rocks are soft, so they wear out quickly.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) The rocks are huge and hard.

    Sedimentary rocks form in layers from deposited particles, often contain fossils and are generally soft and easily eroded. Being massive and hard is a feature of igneous rocks, so statement (2) does not describe sedimentary rock.

  21. Match the correct pairs of census year and death rate in India : Year : Death rate (Per 1000) (a) 1981 : (i) 15 (b) 1991 : (ii) 11 (c) 2001 : (iii) 08 (d) 2011 : (iv) 07

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

    India's death rate has fallen steadily decade after decade, from about 15 per thousand around 1981 to about 7 per thousand around 2011. Matching the falling figures to the years in order gives option (1), which is the official MPSC key.

  22. Dispersed settlement have the following characteristics : (a) Dispersed settlement is found in hilly areas, grasslands, dense forests due to physical and environmental unfavourable conditions. (b) The structure of the houses in this settlement is isolated. (c) Due to rivers, mountain ranges, roads, railway lines etc. the clusters of houses are far away from each other. (d) These settlements are found in plains and fertile soil areas in India. Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?

    1. (a) only
    2. (a) and (b) only
    3. (a), (b) and (c)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) and (b) only

    Dispersed settlements consist of isolated houses and arise where harsh terrain such as hills, grasslands or dense forest prevents people from living close together. Clusters split apart by rivers, roads or railways describe semi-clustered or hamleted settlements, and fertile plains favour compact settlements, so only (a) and (b) are correct.

  23. Which of the following is not the tributary of river Sindhu ?

    1. Chinab
    2. Biyas
    3. Son
    4. Ravi
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Son

    The Chenab, Beas and Ravi are Punjab rivers in the Indus (Sindhu) system. The Son rises in the Amarkantak area and is a right-bank tributary of the Ganga, so option (3) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources

  24. Which type of drainage pattern is found in Maharashtra ? (a) Dendritic (b) Parallel (c) Indefinite (d) Trellis

    1. (a), (b) and (c)
    2. (b), (c) and (d)
    3. (a), (c) and (d)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above

    Maharashtra's varied relief produces several drainage patterns: dendritic on the Deccan plateau rivers, parallel among the short west-flowing Konkan streams, and trellis and indefinite patterns in parts of the hilly and plateau regions. The official MPSC key accepts all four, option (4).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Dams and Rivers of Maharashtra

  25. Choose the correct option considering the following statements : Statement (a) : According to the final census of 2011, Mumbai sub-urban district had the highest population density in Maharashtra. Statement (b) : According to the final census of 2011, Kolhapur district is the fifth most densely populated district in Maharashtra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    1. Statement (a) is correct and Statement (b) is false
    2. Statement (b) is correct and Statement (a) is false
    3. Both Statements are wrong
    4. Both Statements are correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Both Statements are correct

    In Census 2011, Mumbai Suburban had the highest density in the state (about 20,900 per sq km), followed by Mumbai City, Thane, Pune and then Kolhapur (about 504 per sq km) in fifth place. So both statements are correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Districts and Divisions of Maharashtra

  26. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

    1. The Lakshadweep island group is in the Arabian Sea.
    2. India's maritime boundary is 12 nautical miles from the coast.
    3. Andman and Nicobar Islands are located in the Bay of Bengal.
    4. India has a natural land border with Pakistan and Bangladesh.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) India has a natural land border with Pakistan and Bangladesh.

    Lakshadweep lies in the Arabian Sea, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal, and India's territorial sea extends 12 nautical miles from the baseline. The borders with Pakistan and Bangladesh are largely artificial lines drawn at Partition (the Radcliffe Line), not natural boundaries, so statement (4) is incorrect.

  27. Through which of the following factors the fisheries development program is implemented effectively ? (a) The Fishery Survey of India. (b) National fisheries development board. (c) Development of fishing harbours. (d) Meat Marketing.

    1. (a), (b)
    2. (a), (b), (d)
    3. (a), (b), (c)
    4. (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b), (c)

    Fisheries development is carried out through bodies such as the Fishery Survey of India and the National Fisheries Development Board, along with building fishing harbours and landing centres. Meat marketing is not part of the fisheries programme, so option (3) is correct.

  28. Which is the longest river in the United States from the options below ?

    1. The Mississippi
    2. The Columbia
    3. The Snake
    4. The Hudson
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) The Mississippi

    Of the rivers listed, the Mississippi, at about 3,700 km, is by far the longest; the Columbia, Snake and Hudson are much shorter. So option (1) is correct.

  29. In relation to Maharashtra which statements are true as per 2011 census ? (a) In population Maharashtra rank 2nd in Country (b) Density is 365 per sq. km (c) Literacy is 82.91% (d) Sex ratio is 925

    1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
    2. Only (b), (c) and (d)
    3. Only (a), (c) and (d)
    4. All the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b) and (c)

    Census 2011 placed Maharashtra second in population after Uttar Pradesh, with a density of 365 per sq km and literacy of about 82.9 percent. Its sex ratio was 929, not 925, so statement (d) is wrong and option (1) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Districts and Divisions of Maharashtra

  30. Coal is found at which of the following place in Chandrapur district ? (a) Bandar (b) Ghoggus (c) Telwasa (d) Wani

    1. (a), (b) and (c)
    2. only (a)
    3. only (b)
    4. (b), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (b) and (c)

    Bandar, Ghugus and Telwasa are coalfield areas of Chandrapur district. Wani is a coal-mining centre too, but it lies in Yavatmal district, so option (1) is correct.

  31. Which geological evidence supports the notion that climate change is a natural and continuous process ?

    1. Tree rings in high altitudes
    2. Glacial advances and retreats
    3. Sediment deposits in glacial lakes
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above

    Tree rings, the record of glaciers advancing and retreating, and layered sediments in glacial lakes all preserve evidence of past climate changes that happened without human influence. So all three support the idea, option (4).

  32. Consider the following statements. (a) High latitudes generally have greater biodiversity than low latitudes. (b) Biodiversity is generally greater at lower altitude than at higher altitude on mountain slopes. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct ?

    1. Only (a)
    2. Only (b)
    3. Both (a) and (b)
    4. Neither (a) nor (b)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b)

    Biodiversity generally decreases from the equator towards the poles, so low latitudes are richer, and statement (a) is wrong. It also usually declines with increasing altitude on mountains, so statement (b) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  33. Government of India has established system of Air quality, Weather forecasting and Research (SAFAR) in which of the following four cities for research on air quality assessment, weather forecasting ?

    1. Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Mumbai
    2. Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata
    3. Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Chennai
    4. Delhi, Mumbai, Bangalore, Chennai
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Mumbai

    SAFAR, run by the Ministry of Earth Sciences through IITM Pune, was set up for the metro cities of Delhi, Pune, Mumbai and Ahmedabad. So option (1) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

  34. Consider the following statements regarding global warming : (a) Anaerobic Methane is emitted with rice cultivation. (b) When nitrogen - based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is released into the soil. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct ?

    1. Only (a)
    2. Only (b)
    3. Both (a) and (b)
    4. Neither (a) nor (b)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a)

    Flooded paddy fields create anaerobic conditions in which bacteria produce methane, so (a) is correct. Nitrous oxide from nitrogen fertilizers is released from the soil into the atmosphere, not into the soil, so (b) as worded is wrong and the official MPSC key gives option (1).

  35. PAN (Peroxyacetyl nitrate) is formed as a result of following interaction :

    1. Nitrogen oxide and sulfer dioxide
    2. Carbon monoxide and volatile organic compounds
    3. Nitrogen Oxide and hydrocarbons
    4. Ozone and particulate matter
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Nitrogen Oxide and hydrocarbons

    PAN is a secondary pollutant of photochemical smog, formed when nitrogen oxides react with hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight. So option (3) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Pollution and Health

  36. __________ development is prioritized over environment degradation in energy generation.

    1. Human
    2. Cultural
    3. Political
    4. Social
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Human

    The official MPSC key gives option (1), human development. The idea is that energy generation is pursued mainly to meet human needs and welfare, and this is often given more weight than the environmental damage it causes.

  37. What percentage of the rate of price increase was required to be kept as per the objectives of the 12th Five Year Plan ?

    1. 4.5 to 5.0%
    2. 3.5 to 5.0%
    3. 4.0 to 5.0%
    4. 4.5 to 5.5%
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) 4.5 to 5.0%

    The official MPSC key gives option (1): among its targets, the 12th Five Year Plan (2012-17) aimed to hold inflation, measured by the wholesale price index, at around 4.5 to 5.0 percent.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation

  38. To study the problems of India in the year 1995 __________ committee was formed under the chairmanship of Dr. Abid Hussain.

    1. Education
    2. Agriculture
    3. Large Industry
    4. Small Industry
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Small Industry

    The Abid Hussain Committee (report 1997) was the expert committee on small enterprises, set up to study the problems of the small-scale industry sector. So option (4) is correct.

  39. The Employees Provident Fund Act was made in __________.

    1. 1950
    2. 1952
    3. 1960
    4. 1981
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) 1952

    The Employees' Provident Funds Act was enacted in 1952 (later renamed the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act). So option (2) is correct.

  40. Perspective Planning refers __________. (a) Long run planning for 20 to 25 years. (b) Long range targets are set in-advance for a period of 15, 20 or 25 years. (c) One plan for entire period of 15 to 20 years. (d) Broader Objectives and targets are achieved within one or two years.

    1. only (b)
    2. only (a)
    3. (a) and (c)
    4. (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) only (b)

    In perspective planning, long-range targets are fixed in advance for a period such as 15, 20 or 25 years, and these are then worked out through shorter five-year and annual plans. It is not a single plan for the whole period, so the official MPSC key gives only (b), option (1).

  41. Education for women reduses fertility due to __________. (a) Education improves work opportunity for women. (b) Educated women want their own children to be educated. (c) Education and literacy make women more receptive to information about contraception (d) Improving economic condition of women.

    1. (a) and (b)
    2. Only (c)
    3. (b) and (d)
    4. (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (c)

    The official MPSC key gives only (c), option (2). The direct link it accepts is that educated, literate women are more aware of and receptive to information about contraception and family planning, which lowers fertility.

  42. Food security includes following stages : (a) Adequate availability of food grains to all. (b) Adequate availability of food grains and pulses to all. (c) Adequate availability of food grains, pulses, milk and vegetables to all. (d) Adequate availability of food grains, pulses, milk products, vegetables, fruits, meat and fish etc.

    1. Only (d)
    2. (a) and (b)
    3. (a), (b) and (c)
    4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

    Food security is seen as developing in stages, from adequate cereals for all, to cereals and pulses, then adding milk and vegetables, and finally a full diet with fruits, meat and fish. All four stages are included, so option (4) is correct.

  43. According to Gunnar Mirdal the role of Govt. in economic development should be as follows : (a) Effecting the spread effect by neutralizing backward effect. (b) Neutralizing spread effect by effecting the backward effect. (c) Effecting spread effect and backward effect. (d) Neutralizing spread effect and backward effect.

    1. Only (a)
    2. (a) and (c)
    3. (b) and (c)
    4. (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a)

    Gunnar Myrdal argued that growth in advanced regions creates backwash effects that harm backward regions, and spread effects that help them. The state should counter the backwash effects and strengthen the spread effects, so only (a) is correct.

  44. Gaurav Dutt and Martin Ravalin said that Poverty Gap Index is calculated for which of the following reasons ?

    1. How much calories deficit needs to be made up to eliminate poverty ?
    2. How much income would be needed to cover the deficit to eliminate poverty ?
    3. How much increase in per capita income will be required to eliminate poverty ?
    4. None of these
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) How much income would be needed to cover the deficit to eliminate poverty ?

    The poverty gap index measures how far, on average, the poor fall below the poverty line, and so shows how much income would be needed to fill that shortfall and lift everyone out of poverty. So option (2) is correct.

  45. When was the 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao' campaign launched for the protection and empowerment of the girl child as per the last revised statistics of child sex Ratio in India ?

    1. 22 January 2016
    2. 22 January 2018
    3. 22 January 2015
    4. 25 January 2015
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) 22 January 2015

    Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme at Panipat, Haryana, on 22 January 2015, in response to the falling child sex ratio. So option (3) is correct.

  46. Relative poverty depends on following factors : (a) The human body needs calories every day. (b) Income is necessary to meet basic needs. (c) Comparing two income groups, the lower income group comes in poverty. (d) Poverty is the condition of not being able to meet the basic needs.

    1. only (c)
    2. (a) and (b)
    3. only (d)
    4. (a) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) only (c)

    Relative poverty is judged by comparing the incomes of different groups, so the group with lower income is regarded as poor relative to the others. Calorie needs and inability to meet basic needs describe absolute poverty, so only (c) is correct.

  47. According to Higins Population growth can be __________. (a) A motivator for autonomous investment in developed countries. (b) A motivator for induced investment in under-developed countries. (c) A motivator for only induced investment in developed countries. (d) Demotivate for autonomous investment in a developed countries.

    1. (a) and (b)
    2. only (d)
    3. only (a)
    4. (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) only (a)

    Benjamin Higgins held that in developed countries population growth acts as a stimulus to autonomous investment, while in underdeveloped countries it does not have this stimulating effect. So the official MPSC key gives only (a), option (3).

  48. The largest share of allocation in the Seventh Five Year Plan went to the :

    1. Agriculture and Communication Sector
    2. Industrial and Communication Sector
    3. Energy Sector
    4. Transport and Communication Sector
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Energy Sector

    In the Seventh Five Year Plan (1985-90), the energy sector received the largest share of public sector outlay, about 28 percent. So option (3) is correct.

  49. Who has criticized that economics is a Kuber worshiping science ?

    1. Ricardo and Malthus
    2. Keneys and Karl Marks
    3. Karlail and Raskin
    4. Chamberlein and Robinsons
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Karlail and Raskin

    Thomas Carlyle and John Ruskin attacked classical economics as a science of wealth that worshipped Mammon (Kuber), calling it a 'dismal science' and a 'bread and butter science'. So option (3) is correct.

  50. In a Society where the income distribution is excessive __________ the handful individual there has unlimited money.

    1. Equality
    2. Asymmetry
    3. Deficiency
    4. Abundance
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Asymmetry

    When income distribution is extremely unequal (asymmetric), a handful of people hold enormous wealth. So option (2) is correct.

  51. A particle thrown up has zero velocity but how much will be the acceleration ?

    1. Zero
    2. Infinity
    3. Equal to acceleration due to gravity
    4. One
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Equal to acceleration due to gravity

    At the top of its flight the particle's velocity is momentarily zero, but gravity still acts on it, so its acceleration is g (about 9.8 m/s squared) directed downward. So option (3) is correct.

  52. Which one of the following is not an application of Bernoulli equation ?

    1. Aspirator pump
    2. Ventury pump
    3. Speed of Efflux
    4. None of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) None of the above

    The aspirator pump and the Venturi device both work because fast-moving fluid has lower pressure, and the speed of efflux from a tank (Torricelli's law) is derived from Bernoulli's equation. All three are applications, so the answer is none of the above, option (4).

  53. At room temperature (300k), what is the significant contribution wavelength for the thermal radiation emitted by a body ?

    1. 500 nm
    2. 9550 nm
    3. 1500 nm
    4. 3000 nm
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) 9550 nm

    By Wien's displacement law the peak wavelength is about 2.9 x 10^-3 m K divided by the temperature; at 300 K this is close to 10 micrometres (about 9,600 nm), in the infrared. Of the choices, 9550 nm, option (2), is the one in this range.

  54. Which of the following sentence is wrong ? (I) Atomic nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons. (II) Proton has a positive charge. (III) Electron has a negative charge. (IV) Neutron has a positive charge.

    1. (III) and (II)
    2. (II) and (I)
    3. Only (I)
    4. Only (IV)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (IV)

    The nucleus contains protons and neutrons, protons are positively charged and electrons negatively charged. Neutrons carry no charge at all, so only statement (IV) is wrong.

  55. Say whether following sentences are true or false : (I) For propagation of sound medium is necessary. (II) Unit of frequency of sound is Hertz. (III) Loudness of sound is expressed in decibel unit.

    1. (I), (II), (III) are true
    2. Only (I), (II) is true
    3. Only (II) is true
    4. (I), (II), (III) are false
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (I), (II), (III) are true

    Sound is a mechanical wave and cannot travel through a vacuum, its frequency is measured in hertz, and its loudness (intensity level) is expressed in decibels. All three statements are true.

  56. Which of the following wavelengths are used to study the crystal structure of material ?

    1. Ultraviolet wavelength
    2. Gamma Rays wavelength
    3. X-Rays wavelength
    4. Infrared wavelength
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) X-Rays wavelength

    X-rays have wavelengths comparable to the spacing between atoms in a crystal, so they are diffracted by it; X-ray diffraction is the standard method for finding crystal structure. So option (3) is correct.

  57. Leaf Blight of wheat is caused by infection of which of the following fungus ?

    1. Uromyces tritici
    2. Alternaria triticina
    3. Ustilago nuda
    4. Helminthosporium sativum
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Alternaria triticina

    Leaf blight of wheat is caused by the fungus Alternaria triticina. Ustilago nuda causes loose smut, so option (2) is correct as per the official key.

  58. Which division of Plantae is called amphibians of plant kingdom ?

    1. Bryophyta
    2. Pteridophyta
    3. Gymnosperm
    4. Angiosperm
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Bryophyta

    Bryophytes such as mosses and liverworts live on land but need water for fertilisation, because their sperm swim to the egg. For this reason they are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom.

  59. With respect to structure of DNA, following four statements are made. Choose the two relevant statements. (a) DNA is made of two long chains of nucleotides coiled in a helix around a central axis. (b) DNA is made of two long chains of nucleoside coiled around a central axis. (c) The two chains are complimentary to each other so that Adenine is always paired with Thymine and cytosine with Guanine. (d) The two chains are not complimentary to each other where Adenine is paired with uracil and cytosine with Guanine.

    1. Only (a) and (b) is relevant.
    2. Only (b) and (d) is relevant.
    3. Only (a) and (c) is relevant.
    4. Only (c) and (d) is relevant.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (a) and (c) is relevant.

    In the Watson and Crick model, DNA is a double helix of two polynucleotide (not nucleoside) chains, and the chains are complementary, with adenine pairing with thymine and cytosine with guanine. Uracil occurs in RNA, not DNA, so (a) and (c) are the relevant statements.

  60. Which of the following statements are correct about the cell theory of Schleiden and Schwann ? (a) All living things are composed of one or more cells. (b) New cells are formed from the pre-existing cells. (c) There are basic similarities in chemical composition and metabolic functions of cells. (d) The activity of an organism is collective activities and interactions of its cellular structures.

    1. (a) and (b)
    2. (a), (b) and (c)
    3. (a), (c) and (d)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above

    The cell theory, begun by Schleiden and Schwann and extended by Virchow, holds that all organisms are made of cells, that new cells arise from existing cells, that cells are basically alike in chemistry and metabolism, and that an organism's activity is the sum of its cells' activities. The official MPSC key accepts all four statements, option (4).

  61. Which of the following animals belong to same class ?

    1. Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, Ichthyophis
    2. Ichthyophis, Hippocampus, Calotes, Anabas
    3. Calotes, Pristis, Ichthyophis, Hippocampus
    4. Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, Anabas
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, Anabas

    Torpedo (electric ray), Pristis (sawfish), Hippocampus (sea horse) and Anabas (climbing perch) are all fishes. Ichthyophis is a limbless amphibian and Calotes is a reptile, so option (4) is the group of the same class.

  62. Which plants extract/latex is used to prepare a narcotics called Heroin ?

    1. Poppy plant
    2. Coca plant
    3. Hemp plant
    4. Bajra
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Poppy plant

    Heroin is made from morphine, which is obtained from the latex of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum). Cocaine comes from the coca plant and cannabis from hemp, so option (1) is correct.

  63. Match the following to express general resemblance between bones and girdle fore limbs and hind limbs. List no. - 1 : List no. - 2 (a) Shoulder joint : (i) Tibio-fibula (b) Humerus : (ii) Knee (c) Elbow : (iii) Femur (d) Radio-ulna : (iv) Hip joint

    1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

    The forelimb and hindlimb follow the same plan: the shoulder joint corresponds to the hip joint, the humerus to the femur, the elbow to the knee, and the radio-ulna to the tibio-fibula. This is option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Human Body: Key Facts

  64. Which of the following statements is true ? (a) The adult human skeleton consists of 208 bones. (b) Vertebrae and facial bones are irregular type of bones.

    1. (a) & (b)
    2. Only (b)
    3. (a) only
    4. Neither of the two
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b)

    The adult human skeleton has 206 bones, not 208, so (a) is false. Vertebrae and several facial bones have complex shapes and are classed as irregular bones, so only (b) is true.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Human Body: Key Facts

  65. Consider the following statements : Rate of a chemical reaction is __________. (a) proportional to the concentration of reactants. (b) decreases on increasing the concentration of reactants. (c) increases on increasing the temperature. (d) decreases on increasing the temperature. Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?

    1. Only (b)
    2. Only (d)
    3. Only (a) and (c)
    4. Only (b) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (a) and (c)

    By the law of mass action the reaction rate depends on (is proportional to) the concentration of reactants, and raising the temperature gives more molecules enough energy to react, so the rate increases. Statements (a) and (c) are correct.

  66. Which chemical compound is used to neutralize the acidity of soil increased due to excessive use of Chemical Fertilizers ? (a) Potash (b) Lime water (c) Milk of magnesia (d) Ammonium hydroxide

    1. Only (c)
    2. Only (a) and (d)
    3. Only (b)
    4. All the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (b)

    Acidic soil is corrected by liming, that is, adding lime (calcium oxide or calcium hydroxide, the substance in lime water) which neutralises the excess acid. So only (b), option (3), is correct.

  67. Which of the following pair/pairs of metal/metals can be extracted from their ores by using cyanide complex solutions ? (A) Cu and Au (B) Co and Ag (C) Au and Ag (D) Na and Hg

    1. Both (A) and (B)
    2. Only (C)
    3. Only (D)
    4. Both (C) and (D)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (C)

    In the cyanide (MacArthur-Forrest) process, gold and silver are leached from their ores as soluble cyanide complexes and then recovered with zinc. So only pair (C), gold and silver, is correct.

  68. Identify the type of following chemical reaction. 2KClO₃(s) →(Δ) 2KCl(s) + 3O₂ ↑ (a) Exothermic reaction (b) Displacement reaction (c) Decomposition reaction (d) Photochemical reaction

    1. Only (c)
    2. Only (b)
    3. Only (a) and (d)
    4. Only (a)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (c)

    On heating, one compound, potassium chlorate, breaks down into two simpler substances, potassium chloride and oxygen. This is a thermal decomposition reaction, so only (c) is correct.

  69. From the following which isotope is called as heavy hydrogen ? (a) Protium (b) Deuterium (c) Tritium (d) None of the above

    1. Only (c)
    2. Only (b)
    3. Only (d)
    4. Only (a) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b)

    Deuterium, the hydrogen isotope with one proton and one neutron, is commonly called heavy hydrogen; heavy water is D2O. So only (b), option (2), is correct.

  70. __________ is used to estimate the presence of unsaturation in oils and fats.

    1. Saponification value
    2. Iodine value
    3. Acid value
    4. Viscosity value
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Iodine value

    The iodine value is the amount of iodine absorbed by 100 g of a fat or oil; iodine adds across the carbon-carbon double bonds, so it measures the degree of unsaturation. So option (2) is correct.

  71. Who among the following are members of a Committee that recommends the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner ? (A) Prime Minister (B) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (C) Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (D) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. (E) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    1. (A), (B) and (D)
    2. (A), (B), (C) and (E)
    3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
    4. (A), (B) and (E)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (A), (B) and (D)

    Under Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. So option (1) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies

  72. Which Article in the Constitution of India provides for the Post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) ?

    1. Article 148
    2. Article 343
    3. Article 266
    4. Article 248
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Article 148

    Article 148 provides for a Comptroller and Auditor General of India appointed by the President. Article 343 deals with the official language, Article 266 with the Consolidated Fund and Article 248 with residuary powers.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  73. Consider the following statements regarding 'Kesavanand Bharati' Case : (A) This case was heard by the Constitution Bench of 13 judges headed by Chief Justice of India A.N. Ray. (B) In Seven - Six majority, the bench outlined the basic structure doctrine. (C) This case changed the decision of Golaknath case. (D) This case seems to be the instance of judicial activism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    1. (A), (B) and (C)
    2. (B), (C) and (D)
    3. (B) Only
    4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (B), (C) and (D)

    The 13-judge bench in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) was headed by Chief Justice S. M. Sikri, not A. N. Ray, so (A) is wrong. By a 7 to 6 majority it laid down the basic structure doctrine, overruled Golaknath on Parliament's power to amend fundamental rights, and is widely cited as judicial activism, so (B), (C) and (D) are correct.

  74. The Contingency Fund of India has been placed at the disposal of which authority among the following ?

    1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
    2. President of India
    3. Parliament of India
    4. Prime Minister of India
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) President of India

    Under Article 267, the Contingency Fund of India is placed at the disposal of the President, who can make advances from it to meet unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation by Parliament. So option (2) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  75. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 'Bommai Case' in reference to the Emergency in the State ? (A) The 'Bommai Case' Judgement was delivered by the Supreme Court in 1994. (B) States can appeal to the Supreme Court when President's rule is introduced in the States. (C) If President's Rule is imposed without valid reason/s the Supreme Court can quash the decision of the Central Government. (D) An order to dissolve a State Assembly requires the approval of the Parliament.

    1. Only (C) and (D)
    2. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
    3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
    4. Only (A), (B) and (C)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

    In S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court held that a proclamation under Article 356 is open to judicial review and can be struck down if based on irrelevant or mala fide grounds. It also ruled that the State Assembly can be dissolved only after both Houses of Parliament approve the proclamation, so all four statements are correct.

  76. Identify the incorrect pair :

    1. July 22, 1947 - Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent Assembly.
    2. January 24, 1950 - Adoption of National Anthem by the Constituent Assembly.
    3. January 25, 1950 - Adoption of National Calendar by the Government.
    4. January 26, 1950 - Adoption of National Emblem by the Government.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) January 25, 1950 - Adoption of National Calendar by the Government.

    The national flag was adopted on 22 July 1947, the national anthem on 24 January 1950 and the national emblem on 26 January 1950. The national calendar (Saka calendar) was adopted only on 22 March 1957, so pair (3) is incorrect.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features

  77. Consider the following statement/s regarding constitutional amendment/s in India and Choose the correct option/s. (A) Dadra and Nagar Haveli territories were included in India as per the 10th Amendment. (B) The territories of Diu, Daman and Goa were included in India as per the 11th Amendment. (C) Legislature was established in Union Territories as per the 15th Amendment. (D) The state of Meghalaya was created as per the 22nd Amendment.

    1. (A) and (C) correct
    2. (B) and (D) correct
    3. (B) and (C) correct
    4. (A) and (D) correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (A) and (D) correct

    The 10th Amendment (1961) incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and the 22nd Amendment (1969) provided for creating Meghalaya as an autonomous state within Assam. Goa, Daman and Diu came in through the 12th Amendment and legislatures for Union Territories through the 14th, so (B) and (C) are wrong.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments

  78. The Central Information Commission includes one Chief Information Commissioner and Maximum how many Information Commissioners ?

    1. Five Information Commissioners
    2. Ten Information Commissioners
    3. Six Information Commissioners
    4. Eight Information Commissioners
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Ten Information Commissioners

    Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission consists of the Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners. So option (2) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies

  79. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the citizenship of India ? (A) India has single citizenship system. (B) Citizenship Act was passed in 1955. (C) Part 4 of the Indian Constitution provides citizenship.

    1. Only (A) & (C) Correct
    2. Only (A) Correct
    3. Only (A) & (B) Correct
    4. All of the above are correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (A) & (B) Correct

    India has a single citizenship for the whole country, and Parliament passed the Citizenship Act in 1955. Citizenship is dealt with in Part II (Articles 5 to 11), not Part IV, which contains the Directive Principles, so only (A) and (B) are correct.

  80. Which Articles in the Constitution provide for the electoral system in our country ?

    1. Articles 124 to 128
    2. Articles 324 to 329
    3. Articles 256 to 259
    4. Articles 274 to 279
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Articles 324 to 329

    Part XV of the Constitution, Articles 324 to 329, deals with elections, including the Election Commission (Article 324) and electoral rolls. So option (2) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  81. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning : (A) The state makes discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment. (B) The state avoids preferential treatment for any particular religion. (C) The state treats all religions equally. (D) Freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people. (E) Educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instructions.

    1. (A), (B) and (C)
    2. (B), (C) and (D)
    3. (A), (C), (D) and (E)
    4. (B) and (D)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (B), (C) and (D)

    A secular state has no official religion, does not favour any religion, treats all religions equally and guarantees freedom of conscience and worship. Article 16 bars religious discrimination in public employment, and Article 28 forbids religious instruction in wholly state-funded institutions, so (A) and (E) are wrong and option (2) is correct.

  82. Delhi was called National Capital Territory by which Constitution Amendment Act ?

    1. 63rd Constitutional Amendment Act
    2. 69th Constitutional Amendment Act
    3. 91st Constitutional Amendment Act
    4. 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) 69th Constitutional Amendment Act

    The 69th Amendment Act, 1991, inserted Articles 239AA and 239AB, renaming the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and giving it a Legislative Assembly. So option (2) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments

  83. Consider the following statements about First Lok Sabha : (A) The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after India's First General Elections were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952. (B) The first session of first Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952. (C) The first Lok Sabha lasted its Full tenure and dissolved on 1 April 1957. (D) Shri. G.V. Mavalankar was the First Deputy Speaker of First Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    1. (A) Only
    2. (A) and (B)
    3. (B), (C) and (D)
    4. (D) Only
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (A) and (B)

    The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after the 1951-52 elections and held its first sitting on 13 May 1952. It was dissolved on 4 April 1957, not 1 April, and G. V. Mavalankar was its Speaker (M. A. Ayyangar was Deputy Speaker), so only (A) and (B) are correct.

  84. Consider the following provision/s with respect to various 'National Commissions' in India. (A) 'National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes' was established under Article 339 of the Constitution of India. (B) The 'National Commission for Women' was established under the 'National Commission for Women Act' 1990. (C) The 'National Commission for Minorities' was established under the 'National Commission for Minorities Act' 1992. (D) On 27th December 1993 an ordinance was passed to establish the 'National Human Rights Commission'. Which of the above provision/s is/are correct ?

    1. (A) and (C)
    2. (B) and (D)
    3. (A) and (D)
    4. (B) and (C)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (B) and (C)

    The National Commission for Women was set up under the NCW Act, 1990, and the National Commission for Minorities under the NCM Act, 1992. The SC and ST commissions derive from Article 338 and 338A (Article 339 concerns control of the Union over administration of Scheduled Areas), and the NHRC ordinance was issued in September 1993, so only (B) and (C) are correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies

  85. Which article empowers the High Courts to issue directions for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?

    1. Article 226
    2. Article 135
    3. Article 143
    4. Article 133
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Article 226

    Article 226 empowers every High Court to issue directions, orders and writs, such as habeas corpus and mandamus, for enforcing Fundamental Rights and for other purposes. So option (1) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Fundamental Rights Remedies: The Five Writs

  86. Karpoori Thakur was recently in news. Which of the following is not true about him ?

    1. He is also known as 'Jan Nayak'.
    2. He was First non-congress Chief Minister of Bihar.
    3. He was born in 1924, in a village in Samastipur District.
    4. He won State Assembly election in 1952 from Samastipur Constituency.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) He won State Assembly election in 1952 from Samastipur Constituency.

    Karpoori Thakur, popularly called Jan Nayak and awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2024, was born in 1924 at Pitaunjhia (now Karpoori Gram) in Samastipur district. In 1952 he won the Bihar Assembly seat from Tajpur, not Samastipur, so the official MPSC key marks statement (4) as not true.

  87. Which is the India's rank in global hunger Index 2023 ?

    1. 100
    2. 111
    3. 101
    4. 123
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) 111

    In the Global Hunger Index 2023, India was ranked 111th out of 125 countries. So option (2) is correct.

  88. Consider the correct statements given below : (a) The interior design of Lok Sabha in the new Parliament is based on the theme of National Animal Lion. (b) The design of Rajya Sabha is based on the theme of India's National Flower Lotus. (c) The new Parliament building was inaugurated on 28th May, 2023. (d) The historic Ashok Chakra has been installed beside the speaker of Lok Sabha.

    1. Statements (b), (c) are correct.
    2. Statements (a), (b), (c) are correct.
    3. Statements (b), (c), (d) are correct.
    4. (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Statements (b), (c) are correct.

    In the new Parliament building, inaugurated on 28 May 2023, the Rajya Sabha chamber follows the lotus theme, while the Lok Sabha follows the theme of the national bird, the peacock, not the lion. The object installed beside the Speaker's chair is the historic Sengol, not an Ashoka Chakra, so only (b) and (c) are correct.

  89. Identify the correct statements regarding Asian Games - 2023. (a) This competition was held in Hangzhou, China. (b) Shooter Lovelina Borgohain played a role of flag bearer for India at the time of inauguration. (c) India got 4th position with 28 gold medals. (d) India got total 107 medals in this competition.

    1. (a), (b), (c)
    2. (a), (b), (d)
    3. (b), (c), (d)
    4. (a), (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (c), (d)

    The 19th Asian Games were held in Hangzhou, China, where India finished fourth with 28 gold medals and a record total of 107 medals. Lovlina Borgohain, a flag bearer with Harmanpreet Singh, is a boxer, not a shooter, so statement (b) is wrong.

  90. Select the correct statements : (a) The Nobel Peace Prize, 2023 was awarded to Narges Mohammadi. (b) Narges Mohammadi is a champion of equality and women's rights. (c) In 2004, Narges Mohammadi joined the Defenders of Human Right Center founded by Shirin Ebadi.

    1. Only (a), (b)
    2. Only (b), (c)
    3. Only (a), (c)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b)

    The 2023 Nobel Peace Prize went to the jailed Iranian activist Narges Mohammadi for her fight against the oppression of women and for human rights. She did work with Shirin Ebadi's Defenders of Human Rights Center, but she joined it in 2003, not 2004, so the official MPSC key treats (c) as wrong and accepts only (a) and (b).

  91. Which space agency helps India in tracking the Solar Mission Aditya - L1 ?

    1. NASA
    2. ESA
    3. JAXA
    4. ROCOSMOS
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) ESA

    The European Space Agency (ESA) supports Aditya-L1 by providing deep-space ground station tracking and flight dynamics help to ISRO. So option (2) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: ISRO Space Missions

  92. Select the correct statements (Padma Awards 2024) : (a) 30 of the awardees in it are women. (b) 6 Padma Vibhushan award were declared. (c) 17 Padma Bhushan and 110 Padma Shri awards were declared.

    1. Only (a), (b)
    2. Only (b), (c)
    3. Only (a), (c)
    4. All of these
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (a), (c)

    The Padma Awards 2024 list had 132 awards: 5 Padma Vibhushan, 17 Padma Bhushan and 110 Padma Shri, with 30 women among the awardees. Since there were 5, not 6, Padma Vibhushan awards, only (a) and (c) are correct.

  93. Bar Council of India's 'International Lawyers Conference 2023' was inaugurated in which City ?

    1. New Delhi
    2. Mumbai
    3. Kolkata
    4. Bengaluru
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) New Delhi

    Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Bar Council of India's International Lawyers' Conference 2023 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, in September 2023. So option (1) is correct.

  94. Match the country and the Operations undertaken to protect Indian Nationals Abroad. A (Operations) : B (Country) (a) Operation Ajay : (i) Ukraine (b) Operation Ganga : (ii) Israel (c) Operation Devishakti : (iii) Sudan (d) Operation Kaveri : (iv) Afghanistan

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

    Operation Ajay (2023) brought Indians back from Israel, Operation Ganga (2022) from Ukraine, Operation Devi Shakti (2021) from Afghanistan and Operation Kaveri (2023) from Sudan. This is option (3).

  95. Recently, Odisha Chief Minister has launched Mukhyamantri Sampoorna Pushti Yojana. What is/are the primary objective/s of the scheme ? (a) To promote higher education for girls. (b) Improve maternal and child nutrition in the State. (c) To provide employment opportunities for adolescent girls. (d) Boosting agricultural production in rural area.

    1. Only (a) is correct.
    2. Only (b) is correct.
    3. (a) and (d) are correct.
    4. (c) and (d) are correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b) is correct.

    As its name (pushti means nutrition) suggests, the Mukhyamantri Sampoorna Pushti Yojana of Odisha aims to improve the nutrition of mothers and children in the state. So only (b) is correct.

  96. Match the following pairs : (A) : (B) (a) Dr. Nitin Karmalkar Committee : (i) For implementation of National Education Policy - 2020 in Maharashtra (b) Nitin Karir Committee : (ii) To enquire the incident which happened during the distribution of Maharashtra Bhushan Award (c) Sunil Pawar Committee : (iii) To study why the rates of onion collapse. (d) Dr. K. Kasturirangan Committee : (iv) To make the syllabus for pre-primary to degree according to National Education Policy - 2020

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

    Maharashtra set up the Dr. Nitin Karmalkar committee to plan the implementation of NEP 2020 in the state, the Nitin Karir committee to inquire into the heatstroke deaths at the 2023 Maharashtra Bhushan award ceremony, and the Sunil Pawar committee to study the fall in onion prices. Dr. K. Kasturirangan heads the national steering committee that prepares the curriculum frameworks under NEP 2020, which gives option (1).

  97. Identify the correct statements regarding the Chief Minister Solar Agricultural Channel Scheme. (a) This Scheme was started in June 2017, when Devendra Fadanvis was Chief Minister. (b) The main purpose of this Scheme is to provide supply of electricity to farmers through the agricultural feeder. (c) The government has decided to pay ₹ 50,000 per acre as rent to the farmers under this Scheme. (d) Solar panels are set up on government land up to ten kilometres from the 33 kV substation.

    1. (a), (d) are correct
    2. (a), (b), (c) are correct
    3. (a), (b) are correct
    4. (a), (c), (d) are correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b) are correct

    The Mukhyamantri Saur Krushi Vahini Yojana was launched in Maharashtra in June 2017 under Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis to supply daytime solar power to farmers through agricultural feeders, so (a) and (b) are correct. The official MPSC key treats the lease-rent and distance details in (c) and (d) as wrong and gives option (3).

  98. Women Reservation Bill - 2023, consider the following statements : (a) Narishakti Vandan Adhiniyam officially the Constitutional (One hundred and twenty eight amendment) bill - 2023 is a bill introduced in the Parliament of India. (b) The Women reservation bill was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Lok Sabha on 10th Sept. 2023. (c) This legislation seeks to allocate 30 percent of the seats in Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies for women. (d) The bill was the first that was considered in the new Parliament building. Select the correct statements from the above.

    1. (a) and (d) are correct.
    2. (a) and (b) are correct.
    3. (a), (b), (c) are correct.
    4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) and (d) are correct.

    The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam was introduced as the Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023, and was the first bill taken up in the new Parliament building. It was introduced on 19 September 2023 by Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal, and it reserves one-third (33 percent) of seats, so (b) and (c) are wrong.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments

  99. Identify the correct statements regarding M.S. Swaminathan. (a) He was resident of Tamil Nadu. (b) He was educated from Oxford University. (c) He was Scientist of Agriculture department. (d) He was Member of Rajya Sabha for some time. (e) He was awarded by Raman Magsaysay award.

    1. (a), (b), (c), (e)
    2. (a), (c), (d), (e)
    3. (b), (c), (d), (e)
    4. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a), (c), (d), (e)

    M. S. Swaminathan, the agricultural scientist behind India's Green Revolution, was from Tamil Nadu, was a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha (2007-13) and won the first Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership in 1971. He did his PhD at Cambridge, not Oxford, so (b) is wrong and option (2) is correct.

  100. Which of the following countries are included in the Five Eyes Alliance ? (a) America (b) Britain (c) New Zealand (d) Australia (e) France (f) Germany

    1. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    2. (a), (b), (c), (e)
    3. (a), (b), (e), (f)
    4. (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

    The Five Eyes is an intelligence-sharing alliance of the United States, the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia and New Zealand. France and Germany are not members, so of the listed countries (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

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