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Maharashtra Civil Services Gazetted Combined Preliminary Examination 2026, Paper 1

Series A. Questions and answers from the official MPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक MPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real MPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

  1. What demands did the British Indian Association make to the British Parliament in 1853 AD on the occasion of the renewal of the Charter Act ? (a) The Legislature, Executive and Judiciary should have separate Jurisdictions. (b) The salaries of high-ranking officials should be reduced. (c) A new legislature should be formed and Indian should be represented in it. (d) Salt, excise and stamp duty should be abolished.

    1. Only (a) and (d)
    2. (a), (b) and (d)
    3. (a), (b) and (c)
    4. None of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a), (b) and (d)

    The British Indian Association of Calcutta petitioned Parliament before the Charter Act of 1853 asking for separate legislative, executive and judicial functions, lower salaries for top officials and the abolition of the salt, excise and stamp duties. The official MPSC key gives option (2): (a), (b) and (d).

  2. Choose the correct pairs. (a) Harshcharitra : (i) Kalidas (b) Maalati Madhav : (ii) Vishakhadatta (c) Malvikagnimitra : (iii) Banbhatta (d) Mudrarakshas : (iv) Bhavabhuti

    1. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
    2. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
    3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    4. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

    Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta, Malatimadhava by Bhavabhuti, Malavikagnimitra by Kalidasa and Mudrarakshasa by Vishakhadatta. This matches option (1).

  3. Which of the following provisions were included in the August resolution of 1940 AD ? (a) After the end of the Second World War, assistance will be provided to establish a fully responsible system of governance in India on the lines of a colonial freedom. (b) Some Indians representative will be included in the board of Governor Generals.

    1. Option (a) is correct, option (b) is incorrect.
    2. Option (b) is correct, option (a) is incorrect.
    3. Both the provisions are correct.
    4. Both the provisions are incorrect.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Both the provisions are correct.

    The August Offer of 1940 by Viceroy Linlithgow promised dominion status as the goal after the war and the expansion of the Viceroy's Executive Council to include more Indians. So both provisions are correct, option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year

  4. Which of the following statement applies to Aadilshah's Wajir Hemu ? (a) Adilshah gave Hemu the title of 'Vikramjit'. (b) Hemu started his career as a Market Superintendent. (c) Hemu had not lost a single battle out of 22 battles. (d) Hemu defeated Akbar in the second battle of Panipat.

    1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
    2. Only (a), (c) and (d)
    3. Only (a) and (c)
    4. Only (a), (b) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b) and (c)

    Hemu, the minister of Adil Shah Suri, rose from being a market superintendent and is said to have won 22 battles in a row. Statement (d) is wrong because Hemu was defeated by Akbar's forces in the Second Battle of Panipat (1556), so the answer is option (1).

  5. Choose the correct pairs for authors. (a) Storia-Do-Mogor : (i) Burnier (b) Travel in Mughal Empire : (ii) Niccolao Manucchi (c) Early Travels in India : (iii) William Foster (d) Historical Fragment : (iv) Robert

    1. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
    2. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    4. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

    Storia do Mogor was written by Niccolao Manucci and Travels in the Mogul Empire by Francois Bernier. Early Travels in India was edited by William Foster, and Historical Fragments of the Mogul Empire was written by Robert Orme. This matches option (2).

  6. Match the following. (a) Varahamihira : (i) Panchasiddhantika (b) Vagbhat : (ii) Ashtang Samgraha (c) Ishvara Krishna : (iii) Samkhya Karika (d) Prasatapada : (iv) Vaisheshika Sutra

    1. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
    2. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
    3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
    4. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

    Varahamihira wrote the Panchasiddhantika, Vagbhata the Ashtanga Sangraha on Ayurveda, and Ishvarakrishna the Samkhya Karika. Prashastapada is known for his commentary on the Vaisheshika Sutra, so option (4) is correct.

  7. Match the following Sanskrit authors of the Mughal India and their works. (a) Anantadeva : (i) Chaitanya Charitamritam (b) Gangadhara : (ii) Nirnaya Sindhu (c) Kamlakara Bhatta : (iii) Manorama (d) Krishna Das Kaviraja : (iv) Samskarakaustubha

    1. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    2. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
    3. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
    4. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

    Kamalakara Bhatta wrote the legal digest Nirnaya Sindhu, Anantadeva wrote the Samskarakaustubha, and Krishnadasa Kaviraja wrote the Chaitanya Charitamrita. With Gangadhara linked to Manorama, the official MPSC key gives option (2).

  8. Match the following. (a) Sindhri : (i) Fertilizer Factory (b) Chittaranjan : (ii) Railway Coach Factory (c) Perambur : (iii) Locomotive Factory (d) Pimpri : (iv) Penicillin Factory

    1. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    2. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
    3. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
    4. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

    Sindri had India's first big public sector fertilizer plant, Chittaranjan makes railway locomotives, the Integral Coach Factory at Perambur makes coaches, and Hindustan Antibiotics at Pimpri made penicillin. This is option (2).

  9. Who among the following was arrested in the Bhusawal Bomb Case ?

    1. Sadashiv Malkapurkar
    2. Vishwanath Vaishampayan
    3. Bapusaheb Sahastrabuddhe
    4. Gajanan Potdar
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Sadashiv Malkapurkar

    The official MPSC key gives option (1): Sadashiv Malkapurkar was the person arrested in the Bhusawal Bomb Case among those listed.

  10. __________, a Sanskrit Scholar and a Staunch Social reformer, resigned from government service in 1864 to devote himself to the cause of social reforms.

    1. M.G. Ranade
    2. Vishnushastri Pandit
    3. Balshastri Jambhekar
    4. K.T. Telang
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Vishnushastri Pandit

    Vishnushastri Pandit, a Sanskrit scholar who championed widow remarriage in Maharashtra, left government service in 1864 to work for social reform. So the answer is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra

  11. What are the Three Special Practices that are included in the practice of Sufism ?

    1. Mujahada, Wasl, Fana
    2. Zikr, Murakabah, Tawajjuh
    3. Fana, Zikr, Mujahada
    4. Mujahada, Zikr, Murakabah
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Mujahada, Zikr, Murakabah

    Sufi spiritual discipline centres on mujahada (striving against the self), zikr (constant remembrance of God) and muraqaba (meditation). Fana and wasl are states the seeker hopes to reach, not practices, so the answer is option (4).

  12. Name the social reformer described in the following sentences. (a) He showed courage in practising what he preached. (b) He was a staunch supporter of women's education. (c) He was against child marriages, marriages of his sons and daughters were performed when they were old enough to choose their partners. (d) As he advocated widow remarriages, he gave consent to the remarriage of his daughter who was a widow.

    1. Justice K.T. Telang
    2. R.G. Bhandarkar
    3. V.A. Modak
    4. Justice M.G. Ranade
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) R.G. Bhandarkar

    Sir R.G. Bhandarkar, the Sanskrit scholar and Prarthana Samaj leader, backed women's education, opposed child marriage and arranged the remarriage of his own widowed daughter in 1891. So the answer is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra

  13. Match the pairs. (a) Jiyauddin Barni : (i) Fatuh-Us-Salatin (b) Khwaja Abu Malik Isami : (ii) Kitab-Ur-Rahlah (c) Ibn Batuta : (iii) Tariq-e-Salatin Afgana (d) Ahmed Yadgar : (iv) Fatwa-e-Janhadari

    1. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
    2. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    3. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    4. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

    Ziauddin Barani wrote Fatawa-i-Jahandari, Isami wrote Futuh-us-Salatin, Ibn Battuta's travel account is the Kitab-ul-Rehla, and Ahmad Yadgar wrote Tarikh-i-Salatin-i-Afghana. This is option (1).

  14. Name the authors of following plays : (a) Sangeet Saubhadra : (i) V.V. Vartak (b) Thorale Madhavrao Peshwe : (ii) Annasaheb Kirloskar (c) Janaki : (iii) V.J. Kirtane (d) Andhlyachi Shala : (iv) N.S. Phadake

    1. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
    2. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    3. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    4. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question in its final answer key. For reference, Sangeet Saubhadra was written by Annasaheb Kirloskar and Thorle Madhavrao Peshwe by V.J. Kirtane.

  15. Match the following dynasties and their kingdoms. (a) Maitrakas : (i) Valabhi (b) Chahumanas : (ii) Sakambhari (c) Gurjaras : (iii) Broach (d) Paramaras : (iv) Dhara

    1. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    2. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
    3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
    4. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

    The Maitrakas ruled from Valabhi, the Chahamanas (Chauhans) from Shakambhari, a Gurjara line ruled from Broach (Bharuch), and the Paramaras from Dhara. This is option (1).

  16. Meteorologist R.L. Singh (1971) has classified Indian Climate Region into how many zones ?

    1. Seven
    2. Eight
    3. Nine
    4. Ten
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Ten

    R.L. Singh's 1971 scheme divides India into ten climatic regions, so the answer is option (4).

  17. Observe the following statements. (a) As per the State Mineral Policy 1999, iron, sulphur, gold, copper and lead mineral production was opened to the private sector. (b) Konkan region has the highest mineral availability after Nagpur region. (c) Maharashtra State Mining Corporation was established in 1973.

    1. Only statement (b) is correct.
    2. Statements (b) and (c) are correct.
    3. Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
    4. Statements (a) and (b) are not correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

    The official MPSC key gives option (3), treating all three statements as correct: the 1999 state mineral policy opened these minerals to private producers, Konkan ranks next to the mineral-rich Nagpur division, and the Maharashtra State Mining Corporation was set up in 1973.

  18. Match the following forest circles with their share in percentage to total forest area of Maharashtra. (Forest circles of Maharashtra) : (Percentage to total forest area Economic survey of Maharashtra (2024)) (a) Gadchiroli : (i) 12.5 (b) Nagpur : (ii) 20.8 (c) Dhule : (iii) 9.5 (d) Thane : (iv) 10.4

    1. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
    2. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
    3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    4. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

    Gadchiroli circle has the largest share of the state's forest area (about 20.8 percent), followed among these by Nagpur (12.5), Dhule (10.4) and Thane (9.5), as per the Economic Survey of Maharashtra. This is option (1).

  19. Consider the following statements : (a) The Aravalli is one of the youngest fold mountain in the world. (b) The Aravalli is rich in minerals such as marble, granite, zinc and copper. (c) The Aravalli mountain ranges have supported mining and construction activities for centuries. (d) Historical forts such as Chittorgarh, Kumbhalgarh and Ranthambore are situated here.

    1. Only statement (a) is correct.
    2. Statements (a) and (b) are correct.
    3. Statements (b) and (c) are correct.
    4. Statements (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Statements (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

    The Aravallis are among the oldest fold mountains in the world, not the youngest, so (a) is wrong. They are rich in marble, granite, zinc and copper, have long supported mining, and carry forts like Chittorgarh, Kumbhalgarh and Ranthambore, so option (4) is correct.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Mountain Passes of India

  20. What was the per hectare yield of Rice and Wheat in the year 2023-2024 in India ?

    1. 3282 and 4559 kg
    2. 2681 and 3460 kg
    3. 2882 and 3559 kg
    4. 2581 and 3259 kg
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) 2882 and 3559 kg

    According to official agricultural statistics for 2023-24, India's average yield was about 2882 kg per hectare for rice and about 3559 kg per hectare for wheat, which is option (3).

  21. For what the process of 'Time Lapse Analysis' is used in the time measurement process ? (a) Leap Year (b) Adhik Mass (c) Kshay Mass (d) Tithi Vridhhi - lope Choose correct answer.

    1. (b) and (c)
    2. (c) and (d)
    3. Only (a)
    4. (a), (b), (c), (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

    Calendars correct the gap between their count and the actual movement of the sun and moon in several ways: a leap day, an extra lunar month (adhik maas), a dropped month (kshay maas) and adding or dropping a tithi. All four are such corrections, so the answer is option (4).

  22. Match the following. (City/District) : (Special feature) (a) Ch. Sambhajinagar : (i) Independent district in 1962 (b) Gondia : (ii) City of gates (c) Wardha : (iii) Rice barn (d) Jalna : (iv) Satellite hearing center

    1. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    2. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
    3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    4. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question in its final answer key. For reference, Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar is known as the City of Gates and Gondia is known as the rice city of Maharashtra.

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Districts and Divisions of Maharashtra

  23. As per the Government Resolution dated October 9, 2024, what is the minimum population requirement for establishment a 'Gram Panchayat' in Banjara/Laman/Labhan Tanda areas ?

    1. 600
    2. 700
    3. 800
    4. 900
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) 700

    The Maharashtra government resolution of 9 October 2024 allowed separate gram panchayats for Banjara, Laman and Labhan tandas with a minimum population of 700, so the answer is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Samyukta Maharashtra and Local Government

  24. Match the Regional divisions of Himalayas (List - I) with their West-East Extension (List - II). List - I (Regional Divisions of Himalayas) : List - II (West-East Extension) (a) The Punjab Himalayas : (i) Sutlej to Kali (b) The Kumaon Himalayas : (ii) Kali to Tista (c) The Nepal Himalayas : (iii) Tista to Brahmaputra (d) The Assam Himalayas : (iv) Indus to Sutlej

    1. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
    2. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    4. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

    In the river-based division of the Himalayas, the Punjab Himalayas lie between the Indus and Sutlej, the Kumaon between the Sutlej and Kali, the Nepal between the Kali and Tista, and the Assam between the Tista and Brahmaputra. This is option (1).

  25. Which is the World's Largest iron ore mine, located in the Lake region of the United State ?

    1. Barmingham
    2. Nevhada
    3. Mesabi
    4. Magnitogasark
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question in its final answer key. For reference, the Mesabi Range in Minnesota, near Lake Superior, is the best-known iron ore mining district of the US Great Lakes region.

  26. Find the correct ascending order of the following atmospheric layers from the earths surface. (a) Mesosphere (b) Thermosphere (c) Troposphere (d) Stratopause (e) Stratosphere (f) Mesopause (g) Tropopause

    1. (g), (c), (d), (e), (b), (f), (a)
    2. (a), (f), (b), (g), (c), (d), (e)
    3. (c), (g), (e), (d), (a), (f), (b)
    4. (e), (d), (a), (g), (c), (b), (f)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (c), (g), (e), (d), (a), (f), (b)

    Going up from the surface, the order is troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere, stratopause, mesosphere, mesopause and then thermosphere. That is (c), (g), (e), (d), (a), (f), (b), option (3).

  27. Match the following. List - I (Districts) : List - II (2001-2011 decadal growth in population (%)) (a) Thane : (i) 25.50 (b) Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar : (ii) 30.4 (c) Pune : (iii) 27.33 (d) Nandurbar : (iv) 35.94

    1. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
    2. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
    3. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
    4. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

    In the 2011 Census, Thane recorded the highest decadal growth in Maharashtra (about 36 percent), Pune about 30 percent, Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar (Aurangabad) about 27 percent and Nandurbar about 25.5 percent. This is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Districts and Divisions of Maharashtra

  28. Match the following. List - I (Country) : List - II (Local Names of Shifting Cultivation) (a) Congo and Central Africa : (i) Roca (b) North-East India : (ii) Masole (c) Vietnam : (iii) Jhum (d) Brazil : (iv) Ray

    1. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
    2. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
    3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
    4. (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

    Shifting cultivation is called Masole in Congo and Central Africa, Jhum in North-East India, Ray in Vietnam and Roca in Brazil. This is option (2).

  29. The village agricultural lands were jointly held by the village communities and members were responsible for the payment of the land revenue. What was this system ?

    1. Zamindari
    2. Mahalwari
    3. Patwari
    4. Rayatwari
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Mahalwari

    Under the Mahalwari system, introduced in north-west India, land revenue was settled with the village (mahal) as a whole and its members were jointly responsible for paying it. So the answer is option (2).

  30. Which of the following statement/s are correct ? (a) There are 61 satellites to Uranus planet in solar system. (b) The average distance of Mercury planet from the Sun is 58 million k.m. (c) The average distance from the Sun to the planet Uranus is 4495 million k.m.

    1. Only statement (a) is correct.
    2. Only statement (c) is correct.
    3. Statements (a) and (c) are not correct.
    4. Statements (b) and (c) are not correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Statements (a) and (c) are not correct.

    Mercury orbits about 58 million km from the Sun, so (b) is correct. Uranus has far fewer than 61 known moons and lies about 2,870 million km from the Sun (about 4,495 million km is Neptune's distance), so (a) and (c) are wrong, option (3).

  31. Which of the following statement/s is/are related to Montreal Protocol ? (a) Reduction of the Production and Consumption of ozone depleting Chloro-Fluoro-Carbons (CFCs) in order to check depletion of ozone layer. (b) Work for the protection of the earth and its environment, maintenance of ecological balance and to enrich biodiversity. (c) Study of pollution at pole.

    1. Only (a)
    2. Only (b)
    3. (a) and (c)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a)

    The Montreal Protocol of 1987 is a treaty to phase out the production and use of ozone-depleting substances such as CFCs. It does not deal with general biodiversity or polar pollution studies, so the answer is option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements

  32. Assertion (A) : An ecosystem is a natural resource system. Reason (R) : An ecosystem is a single concept in which the physical environment (Physical or Inorganic Factors) and biotic factors (Humans, animals, microorganisms and plants) live together in a single framework. Which one of the following is correct ?

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
    4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    An ecosystem works as a natural resource system precisely because its non-living physical factors and its living organisms interact within one unit. So both statements are true and (R) explains (A), option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  33. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct ? (a) UN conference on Environment and Development was held at Montreal in 1992. (b) Bruntland Report, 1987 was related with UN second conference at Nairobi. (c) The aim of the Kyoto Protocol was to address the problems of anthropogenic climate change.

    1. Only statement (a)
    2. Only statement (b)
    3. Statements (a) and (b)
    4. Statements (a), (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Statements (a) and (b)

    The 1992 UN Conference on Environment and Development was held at Rio de Janeiro, not Montreal, and the 1987 Brundtland Report (Our Common Future) came from the World Commission on Environment and Development, not a Nairobi conference. The Kyoto Protocol did target human-caused climate change, so (a) and (b) are the incorrect ones, option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements

  34. Arrange the following major greenhouse gases in descending order according to the percentage of their contribution to global warming.

    1. Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide, Fluorinated Gases
    2. Carbon dioxide, Methane, Fluorinated Gases, Nitrous oxide
    3. Methane, Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide, Fluorinated Gases
    4. Methane, Nitrous oxide, Fluorinated Gases, Carbon dioxide
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide, Fluorinated Gases

    Carbon dioxide makes the largest contribution to global warming, followed by methane, then nitrous oxide, with fluorinated gases contributing the smallest share. This is option (1).

  35. Who laid the concept of Biome ?

    1. McNaughton and Wolff (1932)
    2. F. Clements (1916)
    3. A.G. Tansley (1974)
    4. E.H. Heckel (1933)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) F. Clements (1916)

    The American ecologist Frederic Clements developed the biome idea of large plant and animal communities in the early twentieth century. The official MPSC key gives option (2), F. Clements (1916).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms

  36. With reference to the 'National Policy on the Voluntary Sector-2007' consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of Voluntary Organization (VOs) : (a) These organizations are private in nature and separate from the Government. (b) They do not return profits generated to their owners or directors. (c) They are self-governing and are controlled by the Government. (d) They are registered organizations or informal groups with defined aims and objectives. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
    2. Only (b), (c) and (d)
    3. Only (a), (b) and (d)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (a), (b) and (d)

    The 2007 policy describes voluntary organizations as private bodies separate from government, not returning profits to owners or directors, self-governing (not controlled by government), and registered or informal groups with defined aims. Statement (c) is wrong, so the answer is option (3).

  37. Match the pairs. Poverty Eradication Programs in India : Year of launch (a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) : (i) 2001 (b) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) : (ii) 1989 (c) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana : (iii) 1983 (d) Sampoorna Grameen Rojgar Yojana : (iv) 1978

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
    3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
    4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

    IRDP began in 1978 (extended nationwide in 1980), RLEGP in 1983, Jawahar Rozgar Yojana in 1989 and Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana in 2001. This is option (4).

  38. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect regarding the employment regulations for women before and after childbirth ? (a) The Act mandates six weeks of leave after childbirth. (b) The Act mandates six weeks of leave before and ten weeks after childbirth. (c) The Act applies to all establishments without considering minimum number of employee. (d) The Act provides maternity and other benefits.

    1. Only (a)
    2. Only (b)
    3. (a), (b) and (d)
    4. (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (b) and (c)

    The Act bars employing a woman for six weeks immediately after delivery and provides maternity and other benefits, so (a) and (d) are correct. It does not prescribe six weeks before and ten weeks after, and it covers shops and establishments only above a minimum of ten employees, so (b) and (c) are incorrect, option (4).

  39. The periods of the First and Fourth Five Year Plans are __________ and __________ respectively.

    1. 1951-56, 1961-66
    2. 1951-56, 1969-74
    3. 1951-56, 1967-72
    4. 1951-56, 1974-79
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) 1951-56, 1969-74

    The First Five Year Plan ran from 1951 to 1956 and, after the plan holiday of 1966-69, the Fourth Plan ran from 1969 to 1974. This is option (2).

  40. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : As per projection on 1st March 2026, the total projected population of Maharashtra is about 12.93 crore. Statement-II : During the same period, the urban population of Maharashtra is higher than its rural population. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?

    1. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
    2. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
    3. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
    4. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

    The projection cited in the Economic Survey of Maharashtra puts the state's population at about 12.93 crore on 1 March 2026, while the rural population is still larger than the urban one. So only Statement-I is correct, option (1).

  41. Consider the following statements : (a) India's population density was higher than South-Korea in 2017. (b) India's population density was lower than Bangladesh in 2017. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?

    1. Only (a) is correct.
    2. Only (b) is correct.
    3. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
    4. None of the above.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b) is correct.

    In 2017 India had roughly 450 people per sq km, less than South Korea (over 500) and far less than Bangladesh (over 1,200). So only statement (b) is correct, option (2).

  42. Social Security measures are typically divided into two main categories. Which of the following best represents these categories ? (a) Social insurance (b) Social welfare (c) Social assistance (d) Social inclusion

    1. (a) and (b)
    2. (b) and (c)
    3. (a) and (c)
    4. (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a) and (c)

    Social security is usually classified into social insurance, funded by contributions from workers and employers, and social assistance, paid by the state to needy people without contributions. So the answer is option (3).

  43. Consider the following statements regarding the Public Distribution System (PDS) in Maharashtra. (a) By December 2025, there were 270.48 lakh ration card holders in the state. (b) As of 31 October 2025, 51,636 Fair price shops were functioning in the state. (c) By October 2025, about 1.55 crore families received food grains through Aadhaar - based biometric authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    1. Only (a) and (b)
    2. Only (b) and (c)
    3. Only (a) and (c)
    4. (a), (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b) and (c)

    Per the Economic Survey of Maharashtra figures, about 51,636 fair price shops were working and about 1.55 crore families drew grain through Aadhaar biometric authentication. The official MPSC key gives option (2), treating statement (a) as incorrect.

  44. On the basis of Tendulkar Committee estimation, __________% of the rural population and __________% of the urban population was below the poverty line in 2004-05.

    1. 41.8 and 25.7
    2. 29.8 and 30.5
    3. 35.2 and 45.2
    4. 47.2 and 35.2
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) 41.8 and 25.7

    The Tendulkar Committee method put poverty in 2004-05 at 41.8 percent in rural areas and 25.7 percent in urban areas (37.2 percent overall). This is option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation

  45. Which of the following are disadvantages of subdivision and fragmentation of land holding ? (a) Wastage of Land (b) Disguised Unemployment (c) Easy to Land Management (d) Low Productivity

    1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
    2. Only (a), (b) and (d)
    3. Only (a) and (d)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (a), (b) and (d)

    Small, scattered plots waste land on boundaries, keep more family members on the farm than needed (disguised unemployment) and lower productivity. They make land harder, not easier, to manage, so the answer is option (2).

  46. As pointed out by Tendulkar Committee, the concept of poverty is associated with socially perceived deprivation with respect to basic human needs like __________. (a) the need to be adequately nourished (b) the need to be reasonably sheltered (c) the need to be decently clothed (d) the need to escape avoidable diseases (e) the need to be minimally educated Which of the above point/s is/are correct ?

    1. (a), (b) and (c)
    2. (b), (c) and (d)
    3. (c), (d) and (e)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above

    The Tendulkar Committee report describes poverty as socially perceived deprivation of basic needs such as being adequately nourished, decently clothed, reasonably sheltered, able to escape avoidable disease and minimally educated. All five points are included, option (4).

  47. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding National Food Security Act - 2013 ? (a) Women empowerment is a feature of the National Food Security Act - 2013. (b) State Food Commission is monitoring, reviewing and implementing authority of this Act - 2013.

    1. Statement (a) is correct.
    2. Statement (b) is correct.
    3. Statements (a) and (b) both are incorrect.
    4. Statements (a) and (b) both are correct.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Statement (a) is correct.

    The Act promotes women's empowerment by making the eldest woman of the household the head of the family for ration cards. The State Food Commission monitors and reviews implementation but is not the implementing authority, which is the state government, so only (a) is correct, option (1).

  48. Consider the following statements : (a) In the overall Capital Stock David Pearce and Jeremy Warford include man-made physical capital, human capital and environmental capital. (b) According to David Pearce and Jeremy Warford, sustainable development implies that man-made physical capital, human capital and environmental capital decrease in the growth process. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?

    1. Only (a) is correct.
    2. Only (b) is correct.
    3. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
    4. None of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a) is correct.

    Pearce and Warford treat the total capital stock as man-made, human and environmental capital, and define sustainable development as growth in which this total stock does not decline. Statement (b) says the opposite, so only (a) is correct, option (1).

  49. Consider the following statements in the context of aims of National Population Policy, 2000. (a) Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 21 years of age. (b) The long-term objective is to achieve a stable population by 2030. Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect ?

    1. Only (a) is incorrect.
    2. Only (b) is incorrect.
    3. Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.
    4. None of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.

    The National Population Policy 2000 aims to delay girls' marriage to not earlier than 18 and preferably after 20 years, not 21, and its long-term goal is a stable population by 2045, not 2030. Both statements are incorrect, option (3).

  50. Consider the following statements : (a) Coale and Hoover model related to population growth and economic development in low income countries in the late fifties. (b) Coale and Hoover model suggest that GNP would grow faster under higher fertility. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?

    1. Only (a) is correct.
    2. Only (b) is correct.
    3. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
    4. None of the above.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question in its final answer key (the Marathi version says high income countries while the English says low income). For reference, the 1958 Coale and Hoover study of low-income countries such as India argued that lower fertility would let income grow faster.

  51. What is the direction of electric field for a point charge at any point on its equipotential surface ?

    1. Radial outward
    2. Parallel to the surface
    3. Tangential
    4. Radial inward
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question in its final answer key. For reference, the field is always perpendicular to an equipotential surface; for a point charge it points radially outward if the charge is positive and radially inward if it is negative.

  52. The net electric charge that passes through the surface per unit time is called __________.

    1. electric current
    2. potential difference
    3. voltage difference
    4. charge motion
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) electric current

    Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of charge, that is the net charge passing through a cross-section per unit time (I = Q/t). So the answer is option (1).

  53. Match the quantities in Column - I with their dimensions in the Column - II. Column - I : Column - II (a) Permeability (μ0) : (i) ML^2T^-1 (b) Coefficient of Viscocity (η) : (ii) MLT^-2I^-2 (c) Planck's Constant (h) : (iii) ML^-1T^-1 (Where M is mass, L is length, T is time and I is the current).

    1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)
    3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
    4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)

    Permeability has dimensions MLT^-2I^-2, the coefficient of viscosity ML^-1T^-1, and Planck's constant (energy multiplied by time) ML^2T^-1. This is option (3).

  54. If the refractive index of the medium is more than the refractive index of double concave or double convex lens, then the focal length of the lens becomes __________.

    1. infinite
    2. zero
    3. positive
    4. negative
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) negative

    By the lens maker's formula the focal length depends on (n lens / n medium - 1); when the medium is optically denser than the lens this factor becomes negative, so the focal length reverses sign and a convex lens behaves like a diverging lens. The official MPSC key gives option (4), negative.

  55. According to Second Law of the thermodynamics how much will be the efficiency of heat engine ?

    1. Zero
    2. Infinity
    3. One
    4. Less than one
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Less than one

    The second law says no heat engine can turn all the heat it absorbs into work; some heat must always be rejected to a colder sink. So its efficiency is always less than one (less than 100 percent), option (4).

  56. How does the nuclear force behave, when the spin of nucleons are parallel ?

    1. The force is stronger
    2. The force is weaker
    3. The force remains constant
    4. The force become repulsive
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) The force is stronger

    The nuclear force is spin dependent: it is stronger when the spins of the two nucleons are parallel, which is why the deuteron's bound state has parallel spins. So the answer is option (1).

  57. Predict which of the following organisms will have the highest percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in their membranes ?

    1. Antarctic fish
    2. Desert snake
    3. Human being
    4. Polar bear
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Antarctic fish

    Unsaturated fatty acid chains have kinks that keep membranes fluid at low temperatures. Antarctic fish are cold-blooded and live in near-freezing water, so they need the most unsaturated phospholipids, option (1).

  58. Select the organelle that contains its own DNA and 70S ribosomes but is found in eukaryotic cells.

    1. Lysosome
    2. Mitochondria
    3. Golgi Apparatus
    4. Endoplasmic Reticulum
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Mitochondria

    Mitochondria (like chloroplasts) carry their own circular DNA and bacteria-like 70S ribosomes, which supports the idea that they arose from engulfed bacteria. So the answer is option (2).

  59. Apomixis is a type of reproduction that results in the development of a/an :

    1. New organism without fusion of gametes
    2. New organism from fusion products of gametes
    3. Embryo from endosperm
    4. Embryo from nucellus
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) New organism without fusion of gametes

    Apomixis is the formation of seeds, and hence new plants, without meiosis and fertilisation, that is without the fusion of gametes. So the answer is option (1).

  60. Identify the correct statements about jumping genes. (a) These are genes that can change their positions. (b) These are also called transposons. (c) These were firstly discovered by Barbara McClintock in 1965.

    1. (a) and (b)
    2. (b) and (c)
    3. (a) and (c)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above

    Jumping genes are DNA segments that can move to new positions in the genome and are called transposons; they were discovered by Barbara McClintock in maize. The official MPSC key gives option (4), all of the above.

  61. Evolution of marsupials and placental mammals is an example of __________.

    1. Divergent evolution
    2. Convergent evolution
    3. Parallel evolution
    4. Independent evolution
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Convergent evolution

    Australian marsupials and placental mammals elsewhere evolved separately yet developed similar forms for similar ways of life, such as the marsupial mole and the placental mole. The official MPSC key treats this as convergent evolution, option (2).

  62. A polypeptide hormone Calcitonin (CT) is produced by parafollicular cells of __________ gland.

    1. Salivary
    2. Sweat
    3. Thyroid
    4. Pancreas
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Thyroid

    Calcitonin, which lowers blood calcium, is secreted by the parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid gland. So the answer is option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Human Body: Key Facts

  63. During which stage of HIV infection do the symptoms of AIDS usually appear ?

    1. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
    2. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase enzyme
    3. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages a large number of these cells
    4. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages a large number of these cells

    AIDS symptoms appear only after HIV has multiplied in helper T-cells and destroyed so many of them that the immune system fails, letting opportunistic infections set in. So the answer is option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Diseases and Their Pathogens

  64. Which of the following is not a natural plant growth hormone ?

    1. Auxins
    2. Ethylene
    3. Methylene
    4. Abscissic acid
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Methylene

    Auxins, ethylene and abscisic acid are natural plant hormones, while methylene is not a plant hormone. So the answer is option (3).

  65. A colloidal dispersion of one liquid in another immiscible with it is called __________.

    1. Solution
    2. Foam
    3. Emulsion
    4. Gel
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Emulsion

    An emulsion is a colloid in which droplets of one liquid are dispersed in another liquid it does not mix with, like oil in water in milk. So the answer is option (3).

  66. Identify the mineral acid/acids from following acids : (a) Oxalic acid (b) Sulphuric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Hydrochloric acid

    1. Only (a)
    2. (b), (c) and (d)
    3. Only (d)
    4. Only (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (b), (c) and (d)

    Mineral acids are inorganic acids such as sulphuric, nitric and hydrochloric acid. Oxalic acid is an organic acid found in plants, so the answer is option (2).

  67. Chloroamphenicol is a __________. (a) Narrow spectrum antibiotic (b) Broad spectrum antibiotic (c) Limited spectrum antibiotic (d) Antiseptic drug

    1. Only (a) and (d) are correct
    2. Only (b) is correct
    3. Only (b) and (c) are correct
    4. Only (d) is correct
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (b) is correct

    Chloramphenicol acts against a wide range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, so it is a broad spectrum antibiotic. The answer is option (2).

  68. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity ?

    1. Oxygen
    2. Nitrogen
    3. Fluorine
    4. Chlorine
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Fluorine

    Fluorine is the most electronegative element, with a value of about 4.0 on the Pauling scale, higher than oxygen, chlorine and nitrogen. So the answer is option (3).

  69. The oxidation states of all elements in any allotropic form is __________.

    1. +2
    2. +1
    3. Zero
    4. -1
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Zero

    An element in its free, uncombined state has an oxidation state of zero, whatever its allotropic form (for example diamond, graphite, O2 or O3). So the answer is option (3).

  70. Which of the following element forms Co-ordination compounds with simple ligands such as halides ?

    1. Beryllium
    2. Magnesium
    3. Cobalt
    4. None of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।

    MPSC cancelled this question in its final answer key. For reference, transition metals such as cobalt readily form coordination complexes with halide ligands, for example [CoCl4]2-, but beryllium also forms halide complexes such as [BeF4]2-.

  71. Under which of the closure motion, only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting and the intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed ?

    1. Simple closure
    2. Closure by compartments
    3. Kangaroo closure
    4. Guillotine closure
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Kangaroo closure

    Under kangaroo closure only the important clauses are taken up for debate and vote, and the clauses in between are jumped over and treated as passed. So the answer is option (3).

  72. Select the incorrect statement from the following :

    1. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by Court Martial while the Governor cannot.
    2. The President is bound to give reasons for pardoning power.
    3. The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral bearing by the President.
    4. The Pardoning power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) The President is bound to give reasons for pardoning power.

    Under Article 72 the President acts on the advice of the Union Cabinet, can pardon court-martial sentences (the Governor cannot), and need not give the petitioner an oral hearing. The Supreme Court has held that the President is not bound to give reasons for a pardoning decision, so statement (2) is the incorrect one, option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  73. Who determines remuneration of the Advocate General for the State ?

    1. Parliament
    2. President
    3. Legislative Assembly
    4. Governor
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Governor

    Under Article 165 the Advocate General is appointed by the Governor, holds office during the Governor's pleasure and receives the remuneration the Governor determines. So the answer is option (4).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  74. Select the correct statements from the following : (a) Prohibition is issued by a Higher Court to a Lower Court or tribunal and is intended to prohibit it from exceeding its jurisdiction. (b) Writ of prohibition can be issued against administrative agencies. (c) Writ of prohibition is issued against judicial and quasi judicial bodies.

    1. Only (a), (b)
    2. Only (a), (c)
    3. Only (b), (c)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only (a), (c)

    A writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to stop it from exceeding its jurisdiction. It lies only against judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, not administrative authorities, so the answer is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Fundamental Rights Remedies: The Five Writs

  75. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect ? (a) B.N. Rau was advisor of the Constituent Assembly. (b) B.N. Rau prepared draft Constitution in October, 1947. (c) A draft Constitution prepared by B.N. Rau contained 310 Articles and 8 Schedules. (d) A draft Constitution prepared by B.N. Rau contained 243 Articles and 13 Schedules.

    1. (a) and (c)
    2. (b) and (c)
    3. Only (d)
    4. Only (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only (c)

    Sir B.N. Rau, the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly, prepared a draft in October 1947 with 243 articles and 13 schedules. So only statement (c) is incorrect, option (4).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features

  76. Which of the following matters are included in the 12th schedule of the Constitution of India ? (a) Promotion of artistic vision, fire fighting services (b) Cremation ground and electric crematorium (c) Market & fairs, rural housing (d) Protection of the interest of the handicapped and mentally retarded, protection of the environment.

    1. Only (a), (b) and (d)
    2. Only (c) and (d)
    3. Only (a), (b) and (c)
    4. Only (b), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b) and (d)

    The Twelfth Schedule lists municipal functions such as fire services, promotion of cultural and aesthetic aspects, cremation grounds and electric crematoriums, safeguarding the handicapped and mentally retarded, and protection of the environment. Markets and fairs and rural housing are panchayat subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, so the answer is option (1).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules

  77. The National Commission to review the working of the Constitution has recommended that for effectuating fundamental duties are __________. (a) Duty to vote at elections (b) To pay taxes (c) Duty of industrial organisations to provide education to children of their employees (d) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and moral well-being of children

    1. Only (a), (b)
    2. Only (c), (d)
    3. Only (a), (c), (d)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b)

    The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000-02) suggested adding duties such as voting at elections and paying taxes to the Fundamental Duties. The official MPSC key gives option (1), only (a) and (b).

  78. Which of the following statement/s is incorrect about Committee on Public Undertakings of the Parliament ? (a) Pandit Nehru recommended the creation of this Committee in 1963. (b) The Chairman of this Committee is appointed only from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha. (c) From, 1974, 15 members are elected from Lok Sabha and 7 members are elected from Rajya Sabha on this Committee. (d) The tenure of members of this Committee is two years.

    1. (a) and (b)
    2. (a) and (d)
    3. (c) and (d)
    4. (b), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a) and (d)

    The Committee on Public Undertakings was set up in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee, not Nehru in 1963, and its members serve for one year, not two. Its chairman comes only from the Lok Sabha members, and since 1974 it has 15 Lok Sabha and 7 Rajya Sabha members, so (a) and (d) are incorrect, option (2).

  79. Which of the following statements about Veto power of President are correct ? (a) He/she can withholds his/her assent to the bill. (b) Governor may reserve a bill for consideration of the President in any case he/she thinks fit. (c) President can return bill to Parliament for reconsideration with message to both houses.

    1. Only (a) and (b)
    2. Only (b) and (c)
    3. Only (a) and (c)
    4. (a), (b), (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c)

    Under Article 111 the President may withhold assent or return a non-money bill with a message for reconsideration, and under Article 200 a Governor may reserve a state bill for the President's consideration. All three statements are correct, option (4).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  80. Find the correct statements regarding Inter-State Council. (a) It is mentioned in the article 263. (b) The President is empowered to establish it. (c) The President of India has never exercised this power and has not so far established any such Inter-State Council under power of article 263.

    1. (a), (b), (c)
    2. (a), (b)
    3. (b), (c)
    4. (a), (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a), (b)

    Article 263 empowers the President to set up an Inter-State Council. This power has been used: an Inter-State Council was established in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's advice, so (c) is wrong and the answer is option (2).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  81. Which of the following statement/s are correct ? (a) According to K.C. Wheare, Indian Federalism is 'quasi-federal'. (b) According to Morris Jones, Indian Federalism is 'bargaining federalism'. (c) According to C.F. Strong, Indian Federalism is 'less federalism'. (d) According to Granville Austin, Indian Federalism is 'Cooperative federalism'.

    1. Only (a) and (d)
    2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
    3. Only (a)
    4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

    K.C. Wheare called India quasi-federal, Morris-Jones described it as bargaining federalism, Granville Austin as cooperative federalism, and C.F. Strong's description is given as less federal. The official MPSC key treats all four as correct, option (4).

  82. According to simple majority of the Parliament which types of Constitutional Amendments shall be made ? Choose correct statement/s. (a) Establishment of new States. (b) Amendment related to President's emoluments and allowances. (c) Amendment related to Directive Principles to State Policy. (d) Delimitation of Constituencies.

    1. (a) and (c)
    2. (c) and (d)
    3. (a), (b) and (d)
    4. (a), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (b) and (d)

    Formation of new states, the emoluments in the Second Schedule and delimitation of constituencies can be changed by a simple majority of Parliament. Amending the Directive Principles needs a special majority under Article 368, so the answer is option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Landmark Constitutional Amendments

  83. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution establishes the independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India ?

    1. Article 141
    2. Article 144
    3. Article 148
    4. Article 149
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Article 148

    Article 148 provides for the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India; Article 149 deals with the CAG's duties and powers. So the answer is option (3).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies

  84. The provision of double citizenship to overseas citizens of India, applies only to those in some specified countries. These are : (a) Finland (b) Israel (c) Republic of Cyprus (d) Portugal

    1. Only (a), (b), (c)
    2. Only (b), (c), (d)
    3. Only (a), (c), (d)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above

    When overseas citizenship was introduced by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003, it was limited to persons of Indian origin in 16 specified countries, which included Finland, Israel, the Republic of Cyprus and Portugal. So the answer is option (4).

  85. Match the correct pairs of the following articles of the Constitution of India with the subject. Subject : Articles (a) Language to be used in the complaint for redressal of grievances : (i) 350 A (b) Facilities for education in mother tongue at primary level : (ii) 351 (c) Special officer for linguistic minority communities : (iii) 350 (d) Directive for development of Hindi Language : (iv) 350 B

    1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
    4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

    Article 350 covers the language of representations for redress of grievances, 350A primary education in the mother tongue, 350B the Special Officer for linguistic minorities, and 351 the directive for developing Hindi. This is option (4).

    Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution

  86. State the correct statement regarding Chabahar Port. (a) Chabahar port in Iran gives India direct access to Afghanistan, by passing Pakistan. (b) Chabahar port provides a strategic counterweight to China, which has built Karachi port in Pakistan. (c) India Ports Global Limited is the special purpose vehicle created to operate and develop the Chabahar Port. (d) The 2026-27 budget has not allocated any funds for the Chabahar Port. Which of the above statements are correct ?

    1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    2. (b), (c) and (d)
    3. (a), (c) and (d)
    4. (a), (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) (a), (c) and (d)

    Chabahar in Iran gives India a route to Afghanistan that bypasses Pakistan, and India Ports Global Limited is the SPV running it; the official key also accepts that the 2026-27 budget made no allocation for it. Statement (b) is wrong because the Chinese-built port that Chabahar counterbalances is Gwadar, not Karachi, so the answer is option (3).

  87. Who among the following became the 38th President of Chile ?

    1. Gabriel Boric
    2. Sebastian Pinera
    3. Jose Antonio Kast Rist
    4. Ricardo Lagos
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Jose Antonio Kast Rist

    Jose Antonio Kast won Chile's 2025 presidential election and took office in March 2026 as the 38th President, succeeding Gabriel Boric. So the answer is option (3).

  88. Select the correct statements from the following about PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana. (a) The Union Cabinet approved the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana on 16th July, 2025. (b) The scheme identifies 100 districts based on low productivity, low cropping intensity and less credit disbursement. (c) The scheme will be governed through a four-tier implementation structure.

    1. Only (a), (b)
    2. Only (b), (c)
    3. Only (a), (c)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only (a), (b)

    The Union Cabinet approved the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana on 16 July 2025 for 100 districts chosen for low productivity, low cropping intensity and low credit disbursement. The official MPSC key gives option (1), treating the four-tier statement (c) as incorrect.

  89. Match the pairs : (Nobel Prize, 2025) 'A' : 'B' (a) Discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit : (i) Maria Carina Machado (b) The development of metal-organic frameworks : (ii) Fred Ramsdell (c) Discoveries concerning peripheral immune tolerance : (iii) Richard Robson (d) Promoting democratic rights for the people of Venezuela : (iv) John Clarke

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

    The 2025 Nobel Prizes went to John Clarke (Physics, macroscopic quantum tunnelling in circuits), Richard Robson (Chemistry, metal-organic frameworks), Fred Ramsdell (Medicine, peripheral immune tolerance) and Maria Corina Machado (Peace, democratic rights in Venezuela). This is option (2).

  90. Select the correct and incorrect statement/s from the following : (a) The 31st National Children's Science Congress (NCSC) was held in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh from 3rd to 6th January, 2026. (b) The 31st National Children's Science Congress (NCSC) was held on theme "Understanding ecosystem for Health and Wellbeing".

    1. (a) is correct, (b) is incorrect
    2. (b) is correct, (a) is incorrect
    3. Both (a) and (b) are correct
    4. Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) (b) is correct, (a) is incorrect

    The 31st National Children's Science Congress had the focal theme Understanding Ecosystem for Health and Wellbeing. The official MPSC key gives option (2), treating the venue and dates in statement (a) as incorrect.

  91. Which of the following is proposed as third new district of Goa by Chief Minister of Goa ?

    1. Kushavati
    2. Cana Cona
    3. Dharbandora
    4. Sanguem
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (1) Kushavati

    Goa's government announced Kushavati, carved out of South Goa and covering talukas such as Dharbandora, Sanguem, Quepem and Canacona, as the state's third district. So the answer is option (1).

  92. According to the Economic Survey of India 2025-26 : (a) An increase in immigration control across countries favoured by Indian emigrants may reduce the growth in remittances. (b) Global trade is being increasingly influenced by Geopolitical alignments and economic statecraft. (c) Trade policy at the global level is driven by protectionist and retaliatory tariffs. (d) Geoeconomic factors are now critical determinants in shaping key bilateral trade patterns. Which of the above statement is /are correct ?

    1. (a), (b) and (c)
    2. (a), (c) and (d)
    3. (a) and (d)
    4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

    The Economic Survey 2025-26 notes that tighter immigration rules in popular destinations could slow remittance growth, and that global trade is now shaped by geopolitical alignments, economic statecraft, protectionist and retaliatory tariffs, and geoeconomic factors. All four statements are correct, option (4).

  93. During which tenure did Shri. Suresh Kalmadi hold the presidency of the 'Asian Athletics Association' ?

    1. 1990 to 2000
    2. 1992 to 2008
    3. 1996 to 2012
    4. 2000 to 2013
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) 2000 to 2013

    Suresh Kalmadi was President of the Asian Athletics Association from 2000 to 2013. So the answer is option (4).

  94. Women Technology Parks (WTPs) have been set up in which of the following states to promote gender equality and empower women through science and technology based solutions. (a) Gujarat (b) Tamilnadu (c) Sikkim (d) Maharashtra (e) Uttar Pradesh

    1. Only (b), (c), (e)
    2. Only (a), (d), (e)
    3. Only (a), (c), (d)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above

    Under the Department of Science and Technology's programme for women, Women Technology Parks have been set up across many states. The official MPSC key gives option (4), that all five listed states have them.

  95. The flagship priorities of the Brazil's BRICS Chairship, 2025 includes the following : (a) Global Health Cooperation (b) Climate change (c) Promotion of women's emancipation (d) Reform of the Multilateral System (e) Trade, Investment and Finance

    1. Only (a), (c), (d)
    2. Only (b), (d), (e)
    3. Only (a), (b), (e)
    4. All of the above
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only (a), (b), (e)

    Brazil's 2025 BRICS chairship named global health cooperation, climate change, and trade, investment and finance among its flagship priorities. The official MPSC key gives option (3).

  96. Which of the following statement/s given is/are correct ? (a) The National Institutional Ranking Framework provides a methodology to rank educational institutions across the country. (b) The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was launched in 2020. (c) The ranking is based on five parameters. (d) Indian Institute of Technology Madras tops in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) category.

    1. (a), (b) & (c)
    2. (a), (b) & (d)
    3. (b), (c) & (d)
    4. (a), (c) & (d)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (a), (c) & (d)

    NIRF provides a common method to rank Indian higher education institutions on five broad parameters, and IIT Madras topped its Sustainable Development Goals category. NIRF was launched in 2015, not 2020, so the answer is option (4).

  97. How many gold, silver and bronze Medals India secure at the 'World Para Athletics Grand Prix 2026' New Delhi ?

    1. Gold - 64, Silver - 69, Bronze - 75
    2. Gold - 75, Silver - 69, Bronze - 64
    3. Gold - 75, Silver - 64, Bronze - 69
    4. Gold - 69, Silver - 75, Bronze - 64
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (2) Gold - 75, Silver - 69, Bronze - 64

    The official MPSC key gives option (2): India won 75 gold, 69 silver and 64 bronze medals at the World Para Athletics Grand Prix 2026 in New Delhi.

  98. Arrange the classical languages of India in an appropriate order as per their recognition. (a) Telugu (b) Sanskrit (c) Pali (d) Odia (e) Tamil

    1. (d), (e), (a), (b), (c)
    2. (a), (e), (b), (c), (d)
    3. (b), (a), (e), (d), (c)
    4. (e), (b), (a), (d), (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (e), (b), (a), (d), (c)

    Tamil was declared a classical language in 2004, Sanskrit in 2005, Telugu in 2008, Odia in 2014 and Pali in 2024. That order is (e), (b), (a), (d), (c), option (4).

  99. Which state has became the First Indian State to Constitute its 8th State Pay Commission, ahead of the January 1, 2026 expiry of the 7th Pay Commission ?

    1. Nagaland
    2. Meghalaya
    3. Manipur
    4. Assam
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) Assam

    Assam set up its 8th State Pay Commission before the 7th Pay Commission period ended on 1 January 2026, becoming the first state to do so. So the answer is option (4).

  100. Which of the following statement/s are correct ? (a) The Global Multidimensional poverty index report is released by World Bank. (b) The 2025 report is focused on the relationship between poverty & climate change. (c) The 2025 report examines four key climate hazards : high heat, drought, flood & air pollution. (d) The report states that poverty in South Asia has greatly increased.

    1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    2. (a), (b) and (c)
    3. (b), (c) and (d)
    4. (b) and (c)
    Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या

    Answer:उत्तर: (4) (b) and (c)

    The Global MPI is published by UNDP and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative, not the World Bank. Its 2025 edition focused on poverty and climate change, examining high heat, drought, floods and air pollution, and it did not report a large rise in South Asian poverty, so the answer is option (4).

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