Maharashtra Gazetted Civil Services Combined Preliminary Examination 2023, Paper 1

Series A. Questions and answers from the official MPSC paper and answer key:सीरीज़ A। प्रश्न और उत्तर आधिकारिक MPSC पेपर और उत्तर-कुंजी से: question paperप्रश्न-पत्र, answer keyउत्तर-कुंजी.

Take this paper as a test: answer as many as you like, then see your score with real MPSC marking and which subjects cost you marks. Your answers stay on this device.

All questions with answersउत्तरों के साथ सभी प्रश्न

Pandita Ramabai with the permission of the Ramabai Association, appointed an advisory board to advise her, who among the following was included in this advisory board ? i. Justice M. G. Ranade ii. Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar iii. Justice K. T. Telang iv. Bapu Hari Shinde
1. i and ii only
2. ii and iii only
3. i and iv only
4. i, ii and iii only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) i, ii and iii only
The advisory board set up for Pandita Ramabai's Sharada Sadan with the Ramabai Association's approval included Pune and Bombay reformers such as Justice M. G. Ranade, Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar and Justice K. T. Telang. The official MPSC key gives option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra
In 1918 A. D., who advised to the Mumbai workers to establish the organization 'People's Union' ?
1. Rajashree Shahu Maharaj
2. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
3. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
4. Bhai Madhavrao Bagal
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Rajashree Shahu Maharaj
The official MPSC key credits Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj of Kolhapur, who supported the cause of workers and backward classes, with advising Mumbai workers in 1918 to form the 'People's Union'. So option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra
Who defended Chiplunkar's attack on Mahatma Jyotirao Phule through his newspaper, considered as the beginning of non Brahmin journalism ?
1. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
2. Bhau Daji Lad
3. Tukaram Tatya Padval
4. Krushnaji Bhalekar
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Krushnaji Bhalekar
Krishnarao (Krushnaji) Bhalekar started the newspaper 'Deenbandhu' in 1877, regarded as the beginning of non-Brahmin journalism, and used it to defend Phule against Vishnushastri Chiplunkar's criticism. So option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra
On which of the following matrimonial relationship between two Royal families, the ancient drama 'Malavikagnimitra' throws light ?
1. Shunga and Vidarbha (Yadnyasen) family
2. Gupta and Vakataka family
3. Shakas and Satavahana family
4. Chalukya and Vardhana family
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Shunga and Vidarbha (Yadnyasen) family
Kalidasa's play 'Malavikagnimitra' tells of the Shunga prince Agnimitra and Malavika, a princess connected with the Vidarbha royal house of Yajnasena. So option (1).
What was the medium of trade exchange during vedic period ? i. Nishka ii. Krusnal iii. Shatman iv. Gan v. Shreni
1. i, ii and iii
2. ii, iii and iv
3. i, ii, iv and v
4. i, iii and v
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) i, ii and iii
Vedic texts mention Nishka, Krishnala and Shatamana as units of value used in exchange, while Gana and Shreni were assemblies and guilds, not money. So option (1).
According to Setu Madhavrao Pagadi, who of the following saint renamed himself as 'Shaha Ramjan' and got converted to Islam by a Sufi Saint Nizamuddin. It is a mystery of cultural history of Maharashtra.
1. Gorakhnath
2. Gahininath
3. Jalandharnath
4. Kanifnath
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Kanifnath
Setu Madhavrao Pagadi, a historian of Maharashtra's Sufi links, wrote that the Nath saint Kanifnath took the name 'Shah Ramzan' after initiation by a Sufi. The official MPSC key gives option (4).
Arrange the following events in the correct order. i. White paper ii. Poona pact iii. Nehru report iv. Dharasna Satyagraha
1. iv, ii, iii, i
2. iv, i, ii, iii
3. iii, iv, ii, i
4. ii, iii, iv, i
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) iii, iv, ii, i
The Nehru Report came in 1928, the Dharasana Satyagraha in May 1930, the Poona Pact in September 1932 and the British White Paper on reforms in 1933. So the order is iii, iv, ii, i, option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
The following statements are written about a. He played an important role in the field of education in Maharashtra. b. He prepared textbooks on various subjects. c. He wrote a book 'Shunyalabdhi' on Mathematics and Science in Marathi. d. Keshavrao Bhavalkar has written his biography.
1. Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar
2. Atmaram Pandurang Tarkhadkar
3. Balshastri Jambhekar
4. Gopal Hari Deshmukh
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Balshastri Jambhekar
Balshastri Jambhekar, often called the father of Marathi journalism, was a pioneer educationist who wrote textbooks, including 'Shunyalabdhi' on mathematics in Marathi. The official MPSC key gives option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Social Reformers of Maharashtra
Arrange the following political organizations chronologically. a. Pune Sarvajanik Sabha b. Bombay Presidency Association c. Madras Mahajan Sabha d. Indian Association
1. b a d c
2. a d c b
3. c d b a
4. d b a c
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) a d c b
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded in 1870, the Indian Association in 1876, the Madras Mahajana Sabha in 1884 and the Bombay Presidency Association in January 1885. So the order is a, d, c, b, option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
Which of the following decision was taken by Sabarmati treaty ?
1. A competitive co-operative party should be established.
2. Students should not be involved in politics.
3. There should be no discrimination among lower caste workers and a team of 50 volunteers should be formed and Hindu Muslim unity should be maintained.
4. A committee of Motilal Nehru and Jayakar to determine the members of the Central Legislature.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) A committee of Motilal Nehru and Jayakar to determine the members of the Central Legislature.
The Sabarmati Pact of 1926 was a compromise between the Swarajists led by Motilal Nehru and the Responsive Co-operators led by M. R. Jayakar on how to work in the legislatures. The official MPSC key gives option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
In 1934 A. D., which of the following region, witnessed the establishment of 'Karshak Sangham' as a peasant organisation ?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Kerala
4. Bengal
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Kerala
The Karshaka Sangham peasant organisation was formed in Malabar, in present-day Kerala, in the mid-1930s by Congress Socialist leaders. So option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
Who remarked about the 'Dandi Yatra' as, Rama's Historical March to Lanka ?
1. Pandit Motilal Nehru and D. J. Tendulkar
2. P. C. Ray and D. P. Mishra
3. Shankarrao Dev and G. V. Ketkar
4. Appasaheb Patwardhan and Suhasini Nambiyar
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Pandit Motilal Nehru and D. J. Tendulkar
Motilal Nehru likened Gandhi's 1930 Dandi March to Rama's historic march to Lanka, and Gandhi's biographer D. G. Tendulkar recorded the same comparison. The official MPSC key gives option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Freedom Struggle: Year by Year
About whom the following statements are related ? i. Religion was separated from politics. ii. Adopted a policy of seclusion towards brave women who followed Sati. iii. To stop child marriage and widow marriage was encouraged. iv. Claimed that the final decision regarding the social law will be his.
1. Babur
2. Humayun
3. Akbar
4. Aurangzeb
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Akbar
Akbar kept the state above religious orthodoxy, discouraged sati, set a minimum age for marriage, allowed widow remarriage and through the Mahzar of 1579 claimed final authority in disputed matters. So option (3).
Bhills in Khandesh protested against British rule because i. The Bhills of the Satpura division got inspiration from the event of the uprising in North India. ii. Taking advantage of the revolt of 1857 Bhagoji Naik and Kazising Naik joined the revolt. iii. Kazising and his associates burnt government treasuries and post offices.
1. i and ii
2. ii and iii
3. i and iii
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above
In 1857 the Bhils of the Satpura region in Khandesh, inspired by the north Indian revolt, rose under leaders such as Bhagoji Naik and Kajising Naik and attacked government treasuries and posts. All three statements are correct, option (4).
In which of the following newspapers did Annie-Besant present her thoughts about Home Rule Movement ? a. New India b. Common Weal c. Bombay Gazette d. Telegraph
1. a and b only
2. b and c only
3. a and d only
4. a, b and c only
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) a and b only
Annie Besant ran the weekly 'Commonweal' and the daily 'New India' and used both to campaign for Home Rule from 1914 onwards. So option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Newspapers and the National Movement
Observe the following statements : A. There is loss of bio-diversity due to dumping of toxic waste into soil. B. Deforestation is responsible for frequent floods in river. C. Fransisco Mendez was known as 'Amazon Gandhi' due to his work in energy field.
1. Only statement C is correct
2. Only statement A is correct
3. Only statement A and B are correct
4. Statement A, B and C are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only statement A and B are correct
Toxic waste in soil harms living organisms and reduces biodiversity, and loss of forest cover increases runoff and flooding. Francisco 'Chico' Mendes was a Brazilian rubber tapper who fought to protect the Amazon forest, not an energy worker, so C is wrong and option (3) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
Nitrogen fertilizers in soils releases ______ when broken down by bacteria.
1. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
2. Nitrous oxide (N2O)
3. Nitrogen trioxide (NO3)
4. Nitrogen (N2)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Nitrogen trioxide (NO3)
Soil bacteria break down ammonium from nitrogen fertilizers by nitrification, which produces the nitrate form written as NO3. The official MPSC key gives option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
In relation to Ozone which statements are true ? A. Ozone is called protection shield of the Earth. B. In 1985 it was clear that Ozone layer has holes. C. 16th September is celebrated as World Ozone Day. D. In 1989 chemicals responsible for Ozone depletion are banned to utilize.
1. Only A, B and C
2. Only B, C and D
3. Only A, C and D
4. All the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All the above
The ozone layer shields the Earth from ultraviolet rays, the Antarctic ozone hole was reported in 1985, 16 September is World Ozone Day, and the Montreal Protocol controlling ozone-depleting chemicals came into force in 1989. All are correct, option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements
Which of the following is not the type of Ecological pyramid ?
1. Pyramid of number
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of food web
4. Pyramid of energy
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Pyramid of food web
The three ecological pyramids are the pyramids of number, biomass and energy. A food web is a network of food chains, not a pyramid, so option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
Some species if eliminated seriously affect the ecosystem. These are called
1. Blue stone
2. Red stone
3. Yellow stone
4. Keystone
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Keystone
Keystone species have an effect on their ecosystem far larger than their numbers suggest, so removing them seriously disturbs the whole system. So option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
Observe the following diagram and state which of the following alphabets indicate the gibbous phase of the moon ? [Figure: The Earth is at the centre of a dotted circular orbit. Eight Moon positions are marked around it: A on the right, B upper right, C top, D upper left, E on the left, F lower left, G bottom and H lower right. Each Moon is drawn with its right half lit and its left half dark, i.e. sunlight comes from the right side.]
This question has a figure in the official paper; it is described in words above.इस प्रश्न में आधिकारिक पेपर में एक चित्र है; ऊपर उसे शब्दों में बताया गया है। See the official paperआधिकारिक पेपर देखिए
1. B and H
2. C and G
3. D and F
4. E and A
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) D and F
With sunlight from the right, the Moon at A (between Earth and Sun) is new and the Moon at E (behind Earth) is full. Positions D and F, on either side of full moon, show more than half of the lit face, which is the gibbous phase, so option (3).
"Environment means the sum total of all conditions agencies and influences which affect the development, growth, life and death of an organism, species or race". Who created this definition of environment ?
1. Universal Encyclopedia
2. Britanica Encyclopedia
3. A. C. Tansley
4. Jackie Smith
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Universal Encyclopedia
This widely quoted definition of environment is attributed in Indian textbooks to the Universal Encyclopaedia. The official MPSC key gives option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Basic Ecology Terms
In the western part of Rajasthan minerals like limestone, gypsum and mineral salts reserves are distributed. Which of the following reasons are responsible for this occurrence ? a. Western part of Rajasthan was submerged under sea water during permocarboniferous period. b. Western part of Rajasthan receives low rainfall. c. Western part of Rajasthan has hot and dry climate. d. In the western part of Rajasthan the area under vegetation is very low.
1. only a is correct
2. only a and b are correct
3. a, b and c are correct
4. only d is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) only a is correct
Limestone, gypsum and salt are sedimentary deposits laid down when western Rajasthan lay under the sea in the Permo-Carboniferous period. Present-day rainfall, climate or vegetation did not create these reserves, so only a is correct, option (1).
Which of the following soil contain the maximum proportion of iron and bauxite minerals ?
1. Red soil
2. Regur soil
3. Laterite soil
4. Alluvial soil
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Laterite soil
Laterite soil forms by intense leaching in hot, wet climates, which removes silica and leaves behind oxides of iron and aluminium, so it is rich in iron and bauxite. So option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Soils of India
Given below are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and other labeled as Reason (R). Select correct answer from the options given below. (A) Cotton is not a weight lossing pure raw material, besides is light in weight and durable. (R) The localization of the cotton textile is found either in cotton producing region or near market.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Raw cotton is a pure, light and non-perishable material that loses little weight in processing, and cotton mills are found both near cotton fields and near markets. Both statements are true, but the location pattern is a result and not the explanation of cotton's properties, so the official MPSC key gives option (2).
In the physical map of India, Maharashtra plateau is shown by which of the following colours ?
1. Dark green
2. Green
3. Yellow
4. Brown
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Yellow
Physical maps use green for low plains, yellow for plateaus of moderate height and brown for high land, so the Maharashtra (Deccan) plateau appears in yellow. So option (3).
On which of the following day does the summer solstice occurs in the southern hemisphere ?
1. 21 March
2. 21 June
3. 23 September
4. 22 December
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 22 December
Around 22 December the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn, giving the southern hemisphere its longest day, the summer solstice. So option (4).
Winter rainfall received by the Mediterranean region is the result of
1. Shifting of pressure belts
2. Low pressure belt occurs over the Mediterranean region during the winter season due to shifting of pressure belts
3. Winds blow from the Mediterranean sea towards land
4. Orographic rain developed on the windward slope of the Alps
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Low pressure belt occurs over the Mediterranean region during the winter season due to shifting of pressure belts
In winter the pressure and wind belts shift south, bringing the rain-bearing westerlies and low-pressure cyclonic systems over the Mediterranean region. The official MPSC key gives option (2), which states this full cause.
Trenches are found mainly along the coast of the western Pacific Ocean because
1. The western margin of the Pacific Ocean is the sub-duction zone
2. Along the western border of the Pacific Ocean parallel mountain ranges are aligned
3. The continental slope of the western part of the Pacific Ocean is steep
4. The western part of the Pacific Ocean is characterised by a large number of trenches
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) The western margin of the Pacific Ocean is the sub-duction zone
Deep-sea trenches form where one plate sinks beneath another, and the western Pacific margin has many such subduction zones, for example the Mariana and Japan trenches. So option (1).
The climatic phenomena retreating monsoon is the result of which of the following atmospheric condition in India ?
1. After reaching to the Himalayan ranges the south-west monsoons retreats
2. The apparent movement of the Sun
3. The expansion of the high pressure belt from north-western part to south-eastern part of India
4. The occurrence of variability in the atmospheric pressure developed over the Indian sub-continent
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) The expansion of the high pressure belt from north-western part to south-eastern part of India
From September the low-pressure trough over north-west India weakens and high pressure builds up there and spreads south-eastward, pushing the monsoon winds back. So option (3).
Which of the following is/are correct statements ? In Maharashtra, in order from north, the major hill ranges on the plateau and the river basins to their south are as follows : a. Tapi Purna basin to the south of the Satpura mountain range. b. Godavari river valley to the south of Satmala Ajintha hills. c. Harishchandra Balaghat hill and Bhima river basin to its south. d. Shambhu Mahadeva hills and Krishna river basin to its south.
1. Only a
2. All are correct
3. Only a and b
4. Only a and c
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) All are correct
On the Maharashtra plateau the hill ranges and river basins alternate from north to south: Satpura then Tapi-Purna, Satmala-Ajanta then Godavari, Harishchandra-Balaghat then Bhima, and Shambhu Mahadev then Krishna. All four are correct, option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Dams and Rivers of Maharashtra
The Sahyadri range is not straight but at many places it is curved, because
1. The Sahyadri range is curved at many places because of the headward erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri
2. The Sahyadri range is curved at many places because of the lateral erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri
3. The Sahyadri range is curved at many places because of the downward erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri
4. Due to heavy rainfall the Sahyadri range is heavily eroded and hence it is curved
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) The Sahyadri range is curved at many places because of the headward erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri
The short, swift west-flowing Konkan rivers cut backwards into the steep western scarp at their sources (headward erosion), pushing the crest line back unevenly and making it zig-zag. So option (1).
As compared to the Godavari and Krishna rivers, the course of the Kaveri river receives large volume of water during winter, because
1. The course of the river Kaveri receives heavy rainfall from the south-west monsoons
2. The course of the river Kaveri receives heavy rainfall from the north-east monsoons
3. The course of the river Kaveri receives rainfall from both south-west and north-east monsoons
4. The tributaries of the Kaveri provide large volume of water to the course of the Kaveri
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) The course of the river Kaveri receives heavy rainfall from the north-east monsoons
The lower Kaveri basin in Tamil Nadu gets heavy rain in October to December from the north-east (retreating) monsoon, so the river carries much water in winter, unlike the Godavari and Krishna. So option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Rivers of India and Their Sources
In his theory of industrial location Alfred Weber tried to establish the pivotal role of which of the following factors ?
1. Labour cost plays a pivotal role in the selection of industrial location
2. Cost of raw material plays a pivotal role in the selection of industrial location
3. Market accessibility plays a pivotal role in the selection of industrial location
4. Transport cost plays a pivotal role in the selection of industrial location
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Transport cost plays a pivotal role in the selection of industrial location
Alfred Weber's least-cost theory (1909) holds that an industry locates where its total transport cost for raw materials and finished goods is lowest, treating labour and agglomeration as secondary. So option (4).
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below. 1. A compact settlement is most probably surrounded by hamlets. 2. Compact settlements are not found in the Himalayan region.
1. Only 1 is correct
2. Only 2 is correct
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only 2 is correct
A main village ringed by hamlets describes a semi-compact or hamleted settlement, not a compact one, while the rugged Himalayan terrain with scattered patches of cultivable land favours dispersed settlements. The official MPSC key treats only statement 2 as correct, option (2).
______ are materials whose resistivities become zero below a critical temperature.
1. Conductors
2. Insulators
3. Super conductors
4. None of these
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Super conductors
A superconductor loses all electrical resistance when cooled below its critical temperature, as first seen in mercury in 1911. So option (3).
If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 36°, then how many images will be formed ?
1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
4. 11
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) 9
For mirrors inclined at angle θ, n = 360/θ = 360/36 = 10. Since 10 is even, the number of images is n - 1 = 9, option (2).
p/ρ + hg + 1/2 = constant is the mathematical statement of
1. Equation of continuity
2. Bernoulli's equation
3. Pascal's law
4. Euler's equation
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।
MPSC cancelled this question; the printed expression is missing the velocity term. The full relation p/ρ + gh + v²/2 = constant for steady flow of an ideal fluid is Bernoulli's equation.
When α-particle emits from a radioactive element then
1. atomic number decreases by 2 and mass number decreases by 4
2. atomic number decreases by 1 and mass number decreases by 2
3. atomic number increases by 1
4. atomic number and mass number remains same
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) atomic number decreases by 2 and mass number decreases by 4
An alpha particle is a helium nucleus with 2 protons and 2 neutrons, so its emission lowers the atomic number by 2 and the mass number by 4. So option (1).
The fever of a child is 104°F. What is this temperature in degree Celsius ?
1. 35°C
2. 37°C
3. 39°C
4. 40°C
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 40°C
C = (F - 32) × 5/9 = (104 - 32) × 5/9 = 72 × 5/9 = 40°C. So option (4).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
1. The speed of Planet is faster when they are nearer to the sun and slower when they are farther away from the sun.
2. The speed of Planet is faster when they are farther from the sun and slower when they are nearer to the sun.
3. The speed of Planet is same when they are nearer to the sun or farther away from the sun.
4. The speed of Planet is faster when they are nearer to the sun or farther away from the sun.
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) The speed of Planet is faster when they are nearer to the sun and slower when they are farther away from the sun.
By Kepler's second law a planet sweeps equal areas in equal times, so it moves fastest near the Sun (perihelion) and slowest far from it (aphelion). So option (1).
Match the following - Vitamins and respective deficiency diseases : Vitamins : Deficiency disease a. Vit. A : i. Rickets b. Vit. D : ii. Scurvy c. Vit. C : iii. Anaemia d. Vit. B12 : iv. Night blindness (answer order: a b c d)
1. iii ii iv i
2. iv i ii iii
3. i iv iii ii
4. ii iii iv i
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) iv i ii iii
Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness, vitamin D rickets, vitamin C scurvy and vitamin B12 anaemia. So a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Vitamins and Deficiency Diseases
Anguina tritici is the parasitic nematode found on ______ plant.
1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Jowar
4. Bajra
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Wheat
Anguina tritici is the wheat seed-gall nematode that causes 'ear cockle' disease of wheat, as its name tritici (from Triticum, wheat) suggests. So option (1).
Conchology is the study of what ?
1. Coelenterates
2. Mollusca
3. Shells of Mollusca
4. Mantle of Mollusca
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Shells of Mollusca
Conchology (from Greek konche, shell) is the study of the shells of molluscs, while the study of molluscs as a whole is malacology. So option (3).
Phyllum Mollusca contains soft bodied animals characterized of : a. They are second largest phyllum in animal kingdom b. They are generally bilaterally symmetrical c. They are only Terrestrial animals d. They are having muscular foot Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. only a
2. a, b and d
3. a, b and c
4. only a and b
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) a, b and d
Mollusca is the second largest animal phylum after Arthropoda; molluscs are generally bilaterally symmetrical and have a muscular foot. Most live in water, so c is wrong and option (2) is correct.
Which of the following major policy interventions are the part of the land reforms in India ? a. Abolition of intermediaries b. Tenancy reforms c. Fixing ceilings on land holdings d. Consolidation of land holdings
1. a, b and c
2. b, c and d
3. a, b and d
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above
India's land reform programme after 1950 had four main parts: abolition of zamindari and other intermediaries, tenancy reforms, ceilings on landholdings and consolidation of fragmented holdings. So option (4).
Who are the beneficiaries of Annapurna Yojana ?
1. School girls
2. Casual labours
3. Senior citizens who are not under National Old Age Pension Scheme
4. Retired soldiers
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Senior citizens who are not under National Old Age Pension Scheme
The Annapurna Scheme (2000-01) gives 10 kg of free foodgrains a month to needy senior citizens who are eligible for but not covered under the National Old Age Pension Scheme. So option (3).
Balanced growth rate aims at
1. equality between growth rate of income, growth rate of output and growth rate of natural resources
2. equality between growth rate of income and growth rate of population
3. equality between growth rate of natural resources and growth rate of income
4. equality between growth rate of natural resources and growth rate of population
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) equality between growth rate of income, growth rate of output and growth rate of natural resources
A balanced (steady) growth path is one where income, output and the resources used grow together at the same rate. The official MPSC key gives option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation
Urbanization means a. Centralization of population in the cities b. Decentralization of population in the cities c. Centralization of population in villages d. Increase in density of population
1. Only a
2. Only a and b
3. Only a and d
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only a
Urbanization is the process by which a growing share of the population becomes concentrated in towns and cities. The official MPSC key accepts only statement a, option (1).
Which of the following statements about Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) is not correct ?
1. AMRUT is flagship mission of Government of India
2. It was launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
3. It addresses the challenges of water supply in cities across the country
4. It was launched on 25th June, 2015 in 500 cities in the country
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) It addresses the challenges of water supply in cities across the country
AMRUT is a flagship urban mission launched on 25 June 2015 by the Union urban ministry for 500 selected cities, so it did not cover cities across the whole country. The official MPSC key marks statement (3) as the incorrect one.
If deprivation score of a household is ______ percent or greater, then that household is called multidimensionally poor.
1. 20.33
2. 50.33
3. 40.33
4. 33.3
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) 33.3
In the Multidimensional Poverty Index (Alkire-Foster method), a household deprived in at least one-third (33.33 per cent) of the weighted indicators is counted as multidimensionally poor. So option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation
Since July 1991, comprehensive liberalization measures have been undertaken to improve the supply side of the economy. Among these the more important are : a. Trade and capital flows reforms b. Industrial deregulation c. Disinvestment and Public Enterprises Reforms d. Financial sector reforms
1. a and b
2. c and d
3. a, b and c
4. a, b, c and d
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) a, b, c and d
The 1991 reforms covered trade and capital-flow liberalisation, industrial delicensing and deregulation, disinvestment and public enterprise reform, and financial sector reform. All four are correct, option (4).
The long-term objectives of economic planning, as spelt out in various plan documents have been as follows : a. Economic growth, self-reliance b. Removal of unemployment, reduction in income inequalities c. Elimination of poverty, modernization d. Inclusiveness and sustainability of growth
1. a only
2. b only
3. c only
4. a, b, c and d
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) a, b, c and d
India's Five Year Plans set growth, self-reliance, full employment, reduction of inequality, removal of poverty and modernisation as long-term aims, and the 11th and 12th Plans added inclusive and sustainable growth. All four apply, option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
The formulation and success of a plan require the following : a. Planning Commission, Statistical data, Objectives b. Fixation of Targets and Priorities, Mobilisation of Resources c. Incorrupt and Efficient Administration, Proper Development Policy d. Economy in Administration, Education base
1. a only
2. a and b
3. a, b and c
4. a, b, c and d
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) a, b, c and d
Successful planning needs a planning authority with reliable data and clear objectives, set targets and priorities with resources mobilised, an honest and efficient administration with a sound development policy, and economy in administration backed by an educated public. All four are listed by the key, option (4).
'A country is poor, because it is poor' this statement is of
1. G. Myrdal
2. Ragnar Nurks
3. Robbins
4. Marshall
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Ragnar Nurks
Ragnar Nurkse described the 'vicious circle of poverty', summing it up as 'a country is poor because it is poor'. So option (2).
Balanced growth theory requires balance between a. Consumer goods and industrial goods b. Capital goods and industrial goods c. Agricultural sector and industrial sector d. All sectors in the economy
1. Only a
2. Only c
3. Only d
4. Only a and b
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Only d
The balanced growth theory of Nurkse and Rosenstein-Rodan calls for simultaneous, balanced investment across all sectors of the economy so that they create demand for one another. So option (3).
According to Schumpeter, a. Development is a discontinuous and spontaneous change in the stationary state. b. While growth is a gradual and steady change in the long run which, comes about by a gradual increase in the rate of savings and population. Which of the statement above is/are correct ?
1. a only
2. b only
3. a and b
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) a and b
Schumpeter distinguished development, a discontinuous and spontaneous change in the stationary state driven by innovation, from growth, a gradual long-run change from steady increases in savings and population. Both statements are his, option (3).
Rangarajan Committee, 2014 defined poverty line for 2011 - 12 at Rs. ______ per capita per day consumption expenditure for urban areas and Rs. ______ per capita per day for rural areas.
1. Rs. 50 and Rs. 35
2. Rs. 47 and Rs. 32
3. Rs. 55 and Rs. 40
4. Rs. 60 and Rs. 45
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Rs. 47 and Rs. 32
The Rangarajan Committee (2014) put the 2011-12 poverty line at about Rs. 47 per person per day in urban areas and Rs. 32 in rural areas. So option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: National Income and Inflation
In 2014, the Government implemented which of the following Scheme for financial inclusion ?
1. Demonetization Scheme
2. Property Disclosure Scheme
3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, launched on 28 August 2014, is the national mission for financial inclusion that opens basic bank accounts for the unbanked. Demonetisation came only in 2016, so option (3).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
What is meant by Gender Budget ?
1. Separate budget for men
2. Separate budget for women
3. Independent provisions for men in the general budget
4. Independent provisions for women in the general budget
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Independent provisions for women in the general budget
Gender budgeting is not a separate budget; it identifies and earmarks provisions for women within the general budget, shown in India's Gender Budget Statement since 2005-06. So option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Budget and Fiscal Terms
Which of the following mathematical relationships should be used to calculate the pH of a 0.10M aqueous HCl solution ?
1. pH = log10(1.0 × 10^-1)
2. pH = log10(1.0 × 10^1)
3. pH = - log10(1.0 × 10^-1)
4. pH = - log10(0.10 × 10^1)
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) pH = - log10(1.0 × 10^-1)
HCl is a strong acid, so [H+] = 0.10 M = 1.0 × 10^-1 M, and pH = -log10[H+] = -log10(1.0 × 10^-1) = 1. So option (3).
How is 1.0N H2SO4 solution is prepared from 10 dm³ of 1.5M H2SO4 solution ?
1. By adding 5 dm³ of water to it
2. By adding 294 g of H2SO4 to it
3. By adding 20 dm³ of water to it
4. By adding 174 g of H2SO4 to it
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) By adding 20 dm³ of water to it
H2SO4 is dibasic, so 1.5 M equals 3.0 N. Using N1V1 = N2V2, 3.0 × 10 = 1.0 × V2 gives V2 = 30 dm³, so 20 dm³ of water must be added, option (3).
Which of the following is correct for the shapes of NH3 and BF3 ?
1. NH3 - Pyramidal and BF3 - Pyramidal
2. NH3 - Planar and BF3 - Planar
3. NH3 - Planar and BF3 - Pyramidal
4. NH3 - Pyramidal and BF3 - Planar
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) NH3 - Pyramidal and BF3 - Planar
In NH3 the nitrogen has three bond pairs and one lone pair, giving a trigonal pyramidal shape, while boron in BF3 has three bond pairs and no lone pair, giving a trigonal planar shape. So option (4).
Which of the following hydrocarbon has 80% carbon ? (H = 1, C = 12)
1. Benzene
2. Methane
3. Ethane
4. Cyclohexane
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Ethane
Ethane, C2H6, has molar mass 30 of which carbon is 24, and 24/30 = 80 per cent. Methane is 75 per cent, cyclohexane about 85.7 per cent and benzene about 92.3 per cent, so option (3).
180 g of acetic acid (CH3COOH) is mixed with 180 g of water (H2O). The mole fraction of acetic acid in the resultant solution is [H = 1, C = 12, O = 16]
1. 0.23
2. 1.0
3. 0.5
4. None of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 0.23
Acetic acid (M = 60) gives 180/60 = 3 mol and water (M = 18) gives 180/18 = 10 mol, so the mole fraction of acetic acid is 3/(3 + 10) = 0.23. So option (1).
If one mole of an ideal gas occupies 22.4 Lit at Standard Temperature and Pressure, then the value of the universal gas constant R is
1. 0.0821 atm Lit mol^-1 K^-1
2. 8.314 × 10^7 Joules K^-1 mol^-1
3. 82.1 atm Lit mol^-1 K^-1
4. 8.314 erg K^-1 mol^-1
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) 0.0821 atm Lit mol^-1 K^-1
R = PV/nT = (1 atm × 22.4 L)/(1 mol × 273 K) = 0.0821 atm L mol^-1 K^-1. The other options have wrong units or powers of ten, so option (1).
Find the wrong pair.
1. Labiatae - Lamiaceae
2. Palmae - Arecaceae
3. Compositae - Clusiaceae
4. Umbelliferae - Apiaceae
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Compositae - Clusiaceae
The modern name of Compositae is Asteraceae; Clusiaceae is the alternative name of Guttiferae. The other three pairs are correct old and new family names, so option (3) is the wrong pair.
What is the principal function of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis ?
1. To transfer the NADH2 and ATP
2. To utilize the NADPH and ATP
3. To generate the NADPH and ATP
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) To generate the NADPH and ATP
The light reactions in the thylakoids use light energy to split water and produce ATP and NADPH, which are then used by the Calvin cycle to fix carbon dioxide. So option (3).
______ are precursors of enzymes. a. Zymogens b. Ribosomes c. RNA d. Protein Which of the option given above is/are correct ?
1. only a
2. only b and c
3. only a and c
4. only d
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) only a
Zymogens (proenzymes) such as pepsinogen and trypsinogen are inactive precursors that are converted into active enzymes. So option (1).
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? a. Enzymes are organic catalyst that accelerate biochemical reaction. b. Enzymes are made up from proteins. c. Enzyme activity is not depends upon temperature. d. Amylase is an enzyme that act on starch.
1. a and b
2. a, c and d
3. a, b and d
4. all the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) a, b and d
Enzymes are protein catalysts that speed up biochemical reactions, and amylase breaks down starch. Enzyme activity does depend on temperature, so c is wrong and option (3) is correct.
Which of the following statement is not included in Article 164 ?
1. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor
2. The Council of Ministers shall not be collectively responsible to the State Legislature
3. The other Minister shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister
4. A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a minister
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) The Council of Ministers shall not be collectively responsible to the State Legislature
Article 164 provides that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State, so the statement that it shall not be responsible is not in the Article. The other three statements are in Article 164, so option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Important Articles of the Constitution
Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if A. A person voluntary acquire the citizenship of some other country. B. A person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for 18 months within five years of his registration. C. The government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud. D. A person has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
1. A, B and C
2. A, C and D
3. B and C
4. A, B, C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) A, C and D
Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, citizenship ends on voluntarily acquiring another country's citizenship, and can be taken away for fraud or disloyalty to the Constitution. Deprivation for imprisonment applies to a sentence of two years within five years of registration or naturalisation, not 18 months, so B is wrong and option (2) is correct.
Which of the following is/are correct pair/s with regard to acceptance in the Indian Constitution ? A. America - Post of Vice President B. Canada - The concept of 'Union' for the Central Government C. South Africa - Election method of Rajya Sabha D. Ireland - Nomination method of the members of the Rajya Sabha by the President who have done special work in specific area
1. Only A
2. A and C
3. A, B and D
4. A, B, C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) A, B, C and D
India took the office of Vice-President from the USA, a federation with a strong Centre described as a 'Union' from Canada, election of Rajya Sabha members from South Africa, and nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha from Ireland. All four pairs are correct, option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
Which of the following is/are the main objective/s of Committee of Parliament on Official language ? A. To review the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union and to make recommendations to increase the use of Hindi. B. Looking into the linguistic demands for new States and make suggestions in that regard. C. Identify the endangered language and make recommendations to protect and preserve them. D. Examine the vernacular education and make recommendations for effective implementation of the three languages formula.
1. A only
2. B, C and D
3. A and D
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) A only
The Committee of Parliament on Official Language, set up under Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963, reviews progress in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union and reports to the President with recommendations. The other tasks are not its mandate, so option (1).
Consider the following statement/s with reference to the President of Zilla Parishad. A. If 1/5th of the total number of members of the Zilla Parishad moves a motion of no confidence and passes it, the President has to resign from office. B. Sudhakarrao Naik's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. C. Vasantrao Naik's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. D. Vasantdada Patil's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. Select the incorrect statements from the above.
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. A and B
4. C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
MPSC dropped this question from evaluation.MPSC ने इस प्रश्न को मूल्यांकन से हटा दिया।
MPSC cancelled this question. For reference, the President of a Zilla Parishad in Maharashtra is elected by the elected councillors from among themselves and can be removed by a no-confidence motion passed by the Zilla Parishad.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Samyukta Maharashtra and Local Government
Which of the following is/are non-constitutional body/bodies ? I. NITI Aayog II. State Finance Commission III. National Commission for Backward Classes IV. Central Information Commission
1. Only I is correct
2. Only III and IV are correct
3. Only I, III and IV are correct
4. Only I and IV are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Only I and IV are correct
NITI Aayog was set up by an executive resolution and the Central Information Commission by the RTI Act, 2005, so both are non-constitutional. The State Finance Commission comes under Article 243-I and the NCBC became constitutional under Article 338B in 2018, so option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
Key Provisions of Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Act, 2016 : A. It amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 (which came into force on 16 January 2014). B. It also amended Section 44 of the 2013 Act that deals with the Provision of furnishing details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants. C. Made it compulsory that all States should set up the office of the Lokayukta within one year. D. The Amendment has removed the period of 30 days for furnishing details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
1. A, B and C
2. A, B and D
3. A, C and D
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) A, B and D
The 2016 amendment changed Section 44 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (in force from 16 January 2014) and removed the 30-day deadline, leaving the form and manner of asset declarations to the government. The one-year deadline for states to set up Lokayuktas was in the original 2013 Act, not the 2016 amendment, so option (2).
Which of the following is/are a duties of National Commission for Backward Classes ?
1. To enquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes
2. To participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes
3. To discharge other functions in relation to the protection, welfare, development and advancement of socially and educationally backward classes
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) All of the above
Article 338B gives the NCBC all three duties: enquiring into complaints of deprivation of rights and safeguards, participating and advising on the socio-economic development of these classes, and other functions for their protection, welfare and advancement. So option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Constitutional, Statutory and Executive Bodies
Which of the following pair is incorrect ? National Party of India : Year of establishment
1. Communist Party of India (Marxist) CPI-M - 1964
2. Communist Party of India (CPI) - 1926
3. Bahujan Samaj Party (B.S.P.) - 1984
4. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) - 1998
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Communist Party of India (CPI) - 1926
The Communist Party of India was formally founded at Kanpur in December 1925, not 1926. The CPI(M) split away in 1964, Kanshi Ram founded the BSP in 1984 and Mamata Banerjee formed the AITC in 1998, so option (2) is the incorrect pair.
Match the pairs correctly. A. Part - I : i. Fundamental Rights B. Part - III : ii. Panchayat Raj C. Part - IX : iii. Citizenship D. Part - II : iv. The Union and its territory (answer order: A B C D)
1. iv ii iii i
2. iii i ii iv
3. ii iii i iv
4. iv i ii iii
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) iv i ii iii
Part I deals with the Union and its territory, Part II with citizenship, Part III with Fundamental Rights and Part IX with the Panchayats. So A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii, option (4).
Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in Schedule - V
1. may be altered by the Governor
2. may be altered by the President
3. may be altered by the Parliament by Constitutional Amendment requiring special majority
4. may be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislation
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) may be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislation
Paragraph 7 of the Fifth Schedule lets Parliament amend the Schedule by ordinary law, and such a law is not treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368. So option (4).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
Which of the following are the objectives of the 'SVAMITVA' Scheme ? A. Ensure financial stability to villagers by letting them use their property to take loans. B. Create precise land records for urban planning and implementation. C. Lessen property related disputes. D. Determine property tax.
1. Only A
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. All of the above
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) A, C and D
SVAMITVA (2020) uses drone surveys to give rural households property cards, so they can use property as collateral for loans, property disputes fall, and panchayats can assess property tax. Its land records are for rural (gram panchayat) planning, not urban planning, so option (3).
Consider the following statements regarding 'Zero Hour' of Lok Sabha : A. The time immediately following the question hour and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the house has come to be known as the zero hour. B. For raising matters during the zero hour members has to give notice between 8.00 a.m. to 9.30 a.m. everyday to the Speaker. C. At present, thirty matters per day as per their priority are allowed to be raised during zero hour. D. There is no maximum limit on the number of matters that can be raised on any given day as there is no provision in rules about Zero Hour. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
1. A and B
2. A, B and D
3. B, C and D
4. A and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) A and D
Zero Hour is the informal time after Question Hour and the laying of papers, before listed business begins, and it is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Under the Speaker's practice about 20 matters, not thirty, are taken up a day, and the official MPSC key accepts only A and D, option (4).
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the legal relationship between the Central and State Government in India ? A. The subject of transfer of property other than agricultural land is included in the Concurrent List. B. The subject of wealth tax on property other than agricultural land is included in the Union List. C. The subject of entertainment tax is included in the Concurrent List. D. The subject of 'Antiquities Museum' is included in the State List.
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, C and D
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) A, B and D
Transfer of non-agricultural property is in the Concurrent List, taxes on the capital value of assets other than agricultural land are in the Union List, and museums and ancient monuments not of national importance are in the State List. Taxes on entertainment are a State List subject, so C is wrong and option (3) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: The Twelve Schedules
After the extensive discussion in the Constituent Assembly, the following provisions was/were included. Which Article does not include ? I. Fundamental duties under Art. 51A II. Constitutional Amendment under Art. 368 III. National emergency under Art. 352 IV. Ordinance under Art. 123
1. Only I correct
2. Only II correct
3. All of the above are correct
4. None of the above are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Only I correct
Articles 368, 352 and 123 were part of the Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, but Article 51A on Fundamental Duties was added later by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. So only I was not included, option (1).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Making of the Constitution and Borrowed Features
In which State was the 10th International Tourism Mart organized in November 2022 ?
1. Maharashtra
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Mizoram
4. Assam
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Mizoram
The 10th International Tourism Mart, held to promote tourism in the North-East, took place at Aizawl in Mizoram in November 2022. So option (3).
Choose the correct option considering the following statements. a. Ramesh Bais is appointed as the Governor of Maharashtra. b. Earlier he was the Governor of Tripura State. c. He belongs to Chhattisgarh State.
1. Only a is correct
2. a and b both are correct
3. a and c both are correct
4. a, b and c are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) a, b and c are correct
Ramesh Bais, a politician from Raipur in Chhattisgarh, became Governor of Maharashtra in February 2023; he had earlier been Governor of Tripura and then Jharkhand. All three statements are correct, option (4).
Examine the following statements regarding the 'Nutrition Promotion Campaign' of the United Nations. A. Afshan Khan was nominated as the co-ordinator of this Campaign. B. Antony Blinken was nominated as the co-ordinator of this Campaign. C. To eradicate malnutrition by 2030 is the objective of this Campaign. D. This campaign is implemented in countries suffering with malnutrition in the world. Identify the correct statements from the above.
1. A and B are correct
2. C and D are correct
3. A, C and D are correct
4. A, B and D are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) A, C and D are correct
The UN's Scaling Up Nutrition (SUN) Movement, which works in countries with high malnutrition and aims to end malnutrition by 2030, is coordinated by Afshan Khan, appointed by the UN Secretary-General. Antony Blinken is the US Secretary of State, so B is wrong and option (3) is correct.
In the Budget 2023 of Maharashtra State, which Corporations was announced to be established ? A. Raje Umaji Naik Economic Development Corporation. B. Marathwada Milk Development Corporation. C. Jagadjyoti Mahatma Basaveshwar Economic Development Corporation. D. Saint Kashiba Gurav Youth Economic Development Corporation.
1. Only A and D
2. Only A, C and D
3. Only B, C and D
4. Only B and C
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only A, C and D
Maharashtra's 2023-24 budget announced several new community economic development corporations, including the Raje Umaji Naik, Jagadjyoti Mahatma Basaveshwar and Sant Kashiba Gurav Youth corporations. A Marathwada Milk Development Corporation was not among them, so the official MPSC key gives option (2).
Which of the following city was the host of '5th ASEAN-India Business Summit' in 2023 ?
1. New Delhi
2. Dhaka
3. Kuala Lumpur
4. Singapore city
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Kuala Lumpur
The 5th ASEAN-India Business Summit was held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, in March 2023. So option (3).
The Shrine of Sammed Shikharji has been in news for the past few days. Identify the correct statements about this pilgrimage site. A. It is the pilgrimage site of Jain community. B. This pilgrimage site is at Girdhi in the Jharkhand State. C. This pilgrimage site is at Aravali Mountain in Rajasthan. D. It is the pilgrimage site of Hindu community.
1. Only A and C are correct
2. Only A and B are correct
3. Only B and C are correct
4. Only C is correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Only A and B are correct
Sammed Shikharji, on Parasnath hill in Giridih district of Jharkhand, is the holiest Jain pilgrimage site, where 20 of the 24 Tirthankaras are believed to have attained nirvana. It was in the news in early 2023 over a plan to develop it for tourism, so option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Buddhism and Jainism
Which Mission did India conduct to aid earthquake affected in 'Turkey' ?
1. Operation Rahat
2. Operation Hamdard
3. Operation Dost
4. Operation Sakha
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) Operation Dost
After the February 2023 earthquake in Turkey and Syria, India sent NDRF teams, an army field hospital and relief material under 'Operation Dost'. So option (3).
Identify the correct statement/s from the following in relation to the 'UN COP 15' A. The Global Biodiversity Agreement was approved by this Council. B. The Global Biodiversity Agreement was done under the Presidency of America. C. China presided 'UN COP 15'. D. There is a need to make efforts to reduce the consequences of climate change and the conservation of threatened species in the agreement.
1. A and B are correct
2. B and D are correct
3. B and C are correct
4. A, C and D are correct
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) A, C and D are correct
COP 15 of the Convention on Biological Diversity, held at Montreal in December 2022 under China's presidency, adopted the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, which includes targets on protecting threatened species and reducing climate change impacts. The USA is not even a party to the CBD, so B is wrong and option (4) is correct.
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: International Environment Agreements
Who among the following inaugurated IBA Women's World Boxing Championship, 2023 in New Delhi ?
1. Shri Anurag Singh Thakur
2. Shri Narendra Modi
3. Shri Amit Shah
4. Smt. Jayashree Banerjee
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Shri Anurag Singh Thakur
The IBA Women's World Boxing Championships 2023 in New Delhi were inaugurated in March 2023 by Anurag Singh Thakur, then Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports. So option (1).
Match the following. Winner of Arjun Award 2022 : Sports a. Bhakti Kulkarni : i. Badminton b. Sakshi Kumari : ii. Kabaddi c. Lakshya Sen : iii. Chess (answer order: a b c)
1. i iii ii
2. ii i iii
3. iii ii i
4. i ii iii
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (3) iii ii i
Among the 2022 Arjuna Award winners, Bhakti Kulkarni is a chess player, Sakshi Kumari a kabaddi player and Lakshya Sen a badminton player. So a-iii, b-ii, c-i, option (3).
Who has been appointed as the Chairman of Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) by Government in March 2023 ?
1. Amitava Mukharjee
2. Deepak Mohanty
3. Rajesh Malhotra
4. Supratim Bandopadhyay
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Deepak Mohanty
Deepak Mohanty, a former RBI Executive Director who was already a whole-time member of PFRDA, was appointed its Chairman in March 2023, succeeding Supratim Bandyopadhyay. So option (2).
Practise this topic:इस टॉपिक का अभ्यास: Economic Institutions of India
Where was the 25th National E-Governance Conference, 2022 held ?
1. Kollam - Kerala
2. Mumbai - Maharashtra
3. Ahmedabad - Gujarat
4. Katra - Jammu Kashmir
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) Katra - Jammu Kashmir
The 25th National Conference on e-Governance was held at Katra in Jammu and Kashmir in November 2022. So option (4).
UNESCO has dedicated International Education Day of 2023 to which country's girls and women ?
1. Iran
2. Afghanistan
3. Israel
4. Vietnam
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (2) Afghanistan
UNESCO dedicated the International Day of Education on 24 January 2023 to the girls and women of Afghanistan, who had been barred from secondary and university education. So option (2).
Which country has removed the mention of the British Monarchy from its currency notes in 2023 ?
1. Australia
2. New Zealand
3. Switzerland
4. Canada
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (1) Australia
In February 2023 the Reserve Bank of Australia announced that its new 5-dollar note would carry an Indigenous design instead of the British monarch's portrait. So option (1).
Match the pairs about 'Padma Shri' Award, 2023. Person : Field a. Ramesh Patange : i. Science and Engineering b. Dr. Mahendra Pal : ii. Literature and Education c. Uma Shankar Pande : iii. Art d. Parshuram Khune : iv. Social Work (answer order: a b c d)
1. ii iii i iv
2. iii ii iv i
3. i iv iii ii
4. ii i iv iii
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Answer:उत्तर: (4) ii i iv iii
In the 2023 Padma Shri list, writer Ramesh Patange was honoured for literature and education, Dr. Mahendra Pal for science and engineering, Uma Shankar Pandey for social work and Zadipatti theatre artist Parshuram Khune for art. So a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii, option (4).

Maharashtra Gazetted Civil Services Combined Preliminary Examination 2023, Paper 1

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